How was Christ's tomb paid for?

The logistics of funeral arrangements, particularly those that involve a "permanent" place of interment, are neither simple nor inexpensive. Based on available archeological evidence from about 2000 years ago, it would seem that stone enclosures for dead bodies were the sort of thing reserved to emperors, well-placed bureaucrats, highly successful merchants and clergy, and possibly some high-ranking military leaders.Among common people of that period, it's far more likely that families would commit their dear departed to a simple covering of loose stones and/or dirt, if not to the long-established tradition of leaving bodies exposed to the elements (presumably at some distance from the habitations of the living, and presumably with duly respectful ceremony citing the "purifying fire" of the sun). It would seem that the Romans, when dealing with the remains of those punished by crucifixion, essentially adopted the latter practice, but presumably with less ceremony.Given the general descriptions ascribed to Jesus and his followers regarding economic status and monetary resources, it seems incongruous that a fully enclosed tomb, with a substantial stone barrier to close it up, would be readily available for his body immediately after his crucifixion. That would have involved a substantial amount of planning, at the very least, not to mention a rather substantial investment of effort and resources (or quite a large quantity of coins).So, leaving aside all the supernatural claims surrounding the death of Jesus, what is there to lend any credence at all to the inescapably non-supernatural assertion that such a tomb was available? How was that worked out?I haven't tried looking up anything myself on this yet - I'm wondering if anyone has addressed the question... Has it already been resolved to everyone's satisfaction?(I don't know whether this would go under "Bible accuracy/inerrancy" or under "Faith and belief". I defer to moderators in determining the appropriate place.)

Thread copied here from the How was Christ's tomb paid for? thread in the Proposed New Topics forum.

According to the account in the Bible Jesus was placed in the already prepared tomb of Joseph of Arimathea.It was not unusual for a family to have a tomb built before it was needed.

Personal check from one Joseph O. Arimathea.Unfortunately the checked bounced so three days later the sheriff had to toss 'em all out.

Edited by Faith, : to add the Matthew passage

'Nuff said.

I have been hereby been schooled. I'm grateful for the info. (I do appreciate becoming less ignorant.)

So... if Joseph of Arimathea believed that Jesus was going to rise from the dead, lending out the family plot for three days wasn't a big deal. It wasn't an act of generosity but of faith.On the other hand, John's gospel mentions fear, not faith.

The disciples didn't have that much faith, so there's no reason to think Joseph of Arimathaea had it either.

Well, that was an odd thing to say. For two reasons.First, if we go by the narrative of the gospels (and if we aren't, what are we talking about?) Jesus' followers didn't actually expect him to rise from the dead, despite his hints in that direction.Second, no-one discussed whether J. of A. was being generous, the question is who paid for the tomb?But since you bring it up, then (again, taking the gospel as gospel, so to speak) J. of A. must have had some stones. Peter denied even knowing Jesus three times before the cock crowed, whereas J. of A. "went in boldly unto Pilate, and craved the body of Jesus" and assisted Nicodemus in giving him a lavish funeral. Never mind being generous, if we are to believe the gospel account he was being courageous.

Again, John's gospel mentions fear, not courage. Apparently Joseph was more afraid of the Jews than he was of Pilate.

I did say "if".

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