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Author Topic:   Is there Biblical support for the concept of "Original Sin"?
jar
Member (Idle past 420 days)
Posts: 34026
From: Texas!!
Joined: 04-20-2004


Message 1 of 2 (589369)
11-01-2010 10:13 PM


A claim often made is that there is a Biblical supported concept of "Original Sin", and that the concept is basic to Christianity.
Most often the quote they point to is Romans 5 where Paul allegedly writes:
quote:
12 Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all people, because all sinned
13 To be sure, sin was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not charged against anyone’s account where there is no law. 14 Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who is a pattern of the one to come.
15 But the gift is not like the trespass. For if the many died by the trespass of the one man, how much more did God’s grace and the gift that came by the grace of the one man, Jesus Christ, overflow to the many! 16 Nor can the gift of God be compared with the result of one man’s sin: The judgment followed one sin and brought condemnation, but the gift followed many trespasses and brought justification. 17 For if, by the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man, how much more will those who receive God’s abundant provision of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man, Jesus Christ!
18 Consequently, just as one trespass resulted in condemnation for all people, so also one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people. 19 For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous.
Even in that passage Paul admits that he is being imprecise and inaccurate.
quote:
13 To be sure, sin was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not charged against anyone’s account where there is no law. 14 Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who is a pattern of the one to come.
So even Paul admits that sin existed before any law or commandment existed, but he provides nothing to support even that position.
The passage gets even more confusing because he then goes on to say that Adam is the pattern of the one to come.
It seems that Paul is making a claim that sin and death only existed because of Adam.
Well, if we actually look at the story in Genesis 2&3, does it support what Paul appears to be asserting?
Does Paul have some basis for the assertion in Romans 5?
Bible A&I likely

Anyone so limited that they can only spell a word one way is severely handicapped!

AdminPD
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Message 2 of 2 (589533)
11-03-2010 9:03 AM


Thread Copied to The Bible: Accuracy and Inerrancy Forum
Thread copied to the Is there Biblical support for the concept of "Original Sin"? thread in the The Bible: Accuracy and Inerrancy forum, this copy of the thread has been closed.

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