I'm taking a class on the New Testament writings”just an intro course”and I've been reading through some of the analysis provided by Bart Ehrman (
New Testament: A Historical Introduction to the Early Christian Writings, 3d ed.). Let me post some relevant parts here before proposing my question:
quote:
In fact, we know from the tantalizing but fragmentary records that numerous other persons were also said to have performed miracles, to have calmed the storm and multiplied loaves, to have told the future and healed the sick, to have cast out demons and raised the dead, to have been supernaturally born and taken up into heaven at the end of their life. (21-22)
...
Apollonius lived at about the time of Jesus. Even though they never met, the reports about their lives were in many ways similar. At a later time, Jesus' followers argued that Jesus was the miracle-working Son of God, and that Apollonius was an impostor, a magician, and a fraud. (20-21)
...
John appears to have been one of the "prophets" who arose during the first century of the Common Era [A.D.] in Palestine. Somewhat like Theudas and the Egyptian, he predicted that God was about to destroy his enemies and reward his people, as he had done in the days of old. And like them, he was destroyed by the ruling officials. (255)
...
Indeed, one interesting piece of evidence that the author of the Fourth Gospel [John] modified his traditions of Jesus' sayings in conformity with his own views is that it is nearly impossible to know who is doing the talking in this narrative, unless we are explicitly told. For John the Baptist, Jesus himself, and the narrator of the sotry all speak in almost exactly the same way, suggesting that there is only one voice here, that of the Gospel writer. (265)
...
Now, this last quote is important, because it leans toward the writings of John being false 'recollections' of what really happened. The effect this has is that it means most of the references of Jesus being God, and God's Son, and the Christ (a subject 'drilled home' in John, so to speak) suddenly become mute”or at least extremely quiet”, which leave us with the other parts, namely Jesus' ability "...to have performed miracles, to have calmed the storm and multiplied loaves, to have told the future and healed the sick, to have cast out demons and raised the dead, to have been supernaturally born and taken up into heaven at the end of their life." As Ehrman points out, people claimed to be able to do things like this weren't that uncommon, making Jesus just one of another many. Then, the later tradition that goes back to apply words to Jesus in John's Gospel must come from some where.
What historical aspect of the Jesus situation could explain why he was deified into one with God? With so many prophets in the day, what about Jesus and his followers brought about the following cult? There's been a lot of people since then who have been highly-regarded; why didn't they get a super-mega religion named after them?
For this post, I'd just like to say that I want to focus on the
historical aspects behind this matter, and not the supernatural ones”so no posts saying 'Jesus really was God, that's why'. We must assume that there is a reasonable, realistic, real-world and non-supernatural-invoking answer to this question.
Jon
I've no idea where to stick this thing, admins... it's up to you
Edited by AdminModulous, : title change : divination->divinity
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