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Author Topic:   Islam conducive to science and democracy
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5840 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 1 of 30 (224370)
07-18-2005 6:19 AM


In the neocon thread both Canadian Steve and Faith have argued that Islam, when it is practiced according to the literal and proper reading of its holy texts, are not conducive. I'll leave aside the fact the broader, general problems within this argument, as well as their generalized arguments about how Xianity is conducive to science and democracy.
What I want to do is get down to actual evidence for an argument on this subject. My position is that while certain fundamentalist strains of Islam have come to power which do act in an oppressive manner, Islam (like any religion) is improperly characterized as inherently oppressive by nature and not only can be, but was conducive to both science and democracy.
Indeed the Islamic world generated the very foundations of modern science and democracy we currently enjoy in the West, when they were imported by those looking to throw off the shackles put in place by Xian dogma.
SCIENCE
The very foundation of modern science is the scientific method. While it is well understood that science began as a very undisciplined discipline, almost "magickal" in its pursuits and methods, eventually methodology was developed to focus research and improve results. This was the scientific method, and its origins are in Islamic nations.
From Wikipedia on Islamic science...
The scientific method in its modern form arguably developed in early Muslim philosophy, in particular, citation ("isnad"), peer review and open inquiry leading to development of consensus ("ijma" via "ijtihad"), and a general belief that knowledge reveals nature honestly. During the middle ages, the advances in mathematics, medicine, astronomy, engineering, and many other fields were evidence that Islamic civilization had some knowledge of science and technology. During this time Islamic philosophy developed and was often pivotal in scientific debates—key figures were usually scientists and philosophers.
Ibn Al-Haitham used the scientific method to obtain the results in his book Optics. It's known that Roger Bacon (who is usually erroneously given the credit for having founded the scientific method) was familiar with Ibn Al-Haitham's work.
Faith in particular tried to suggest Roger Bacon was a key player in modern science, playing up that he was a Xian monk, and thus that Xianity was conducive and influential. Yet here we have seen that Islamic scholars were some of the first practitioners if not the source of scientific method, and that Bacon was influenced by them.
More interesting is what can be found on Bacon himself ...
He was an English philosopher who placed considerable emphasis on empiricism, and has been presented as one of the earliest advocates of the modern scientific method; though later studies have emphasized his reliance on occult and alchemical traditions. He was intimately acquainted with the philosophical and scientific insights of the Arabic world, which was the most advanced civilization at the time.
And what exactly did he face from the church in his attempts to modernize according to Arabic principles...
The scientific training Bacon had received showed him the defects in existing academic debate. Aristotle was known only through poor translations; none of the professors would learn Greek. The same was true of Scripture. Physical science was not carried out by experiment in the Aristotelian way, but by arguments based on tradition. Bacon withdrew from the scholastic routine and devoted himself to languages and experimental research.
Faith should note some counterevidence accumulating in some of her assumptions...
Bacon fell out of favor, and was in fact later imprisoned by the Franciscan order for the second time in 1278 as his dissemination of arab alchemy, and doubtless also his protests against the ignorance and immorality of the clergy, roused accusations of witchcraft. He stayed imprisoned for over ten years, until intercession of English noblemen secured his release.
He possessed one of the most commanding intellects of his own, or perhaps of any, age, and, notwithstanding all the disadvantages and discouragements to which he was subjected, made many discoveries, and came near to many more. He rejected the blind following of prior authorities, both in theological and scientific study.
To the church's credit, he was encouraged by some (one who became pope) to continue his writings in secret. But there can be no discounting where dogma and oppression came from, and where his source of scientific achievement derived.
From the first source above, here is a discussion of science in the Islamic world, prior to its fall and subsequent division...
Science was encouraged by the Abbasid caliphs of Baghdad and they established the "House of Wisdom", an academy of science where they gathered important Sanskrit and Greek manuscripts and supported scholars to study and translate them. Some of these manuscripts were thus saved for humanity only through the Arabic medium.
The important contributions made by Islamic scholars can be seen in many words still in use today:alkali, algebra, alchemy, alcohol, Aldebaran, Altair, Algol, alembic, algorithm, almanac, Almagest, through to zenith and zero.
This situation fell apart toward the late 1400's, and not back in 1000 as Canadian Steve suggested...
With the fall of Muslim Spain in 1492, scientific and technological initiative generally passed to Christian Europe and led to what we now call the Renaissance and the Enlightenment. The fiqh of Islamic Law froze more or less along classical/medieval lines, and no longer encouraged science.
There is now a movement to return to the pro-scientific strains of Islam, much as there was a return to pro-science in Xianity with the Renaissance and Enlightenment.
Thus it would seem that there is an ebb and flow within both, which prevents the characterization of either as inherently anything. Indeed while some in Islam are moving back toward a pro-science stance, some Xians in the West are avidly seeking a return to preEnlightenment antiscience and antiscientific methodological positions.
GOVERNMENT
All Abrahamic monotheistic religions have as their core concept laws given by God, both obligations and restrictions. One cannot escape this core fact, with such an unforgettable image as Moses carrying the Ten Commandments down from the mountain.
Indeed there is much irony and hypocrisy when Xians deride Islam as only allowing theocracy and not democracy, and declare Xianity devoid of theocratic and monarchical instruction, while at the same time claiming that Images of the ten commandments should be posted at our courthouses to show where the first laws were derived and what we have to stay faithful to or will fail as a nation.
In the full analysis, Judaism began under Mosaic laws, which did not allow for democracy and indeed resulted in the genocide of anyone who would not submit. It went on to found a Kingdom, and even for Xians who would later use Jesus' death as a reason for renouncing some of Mosaic Law, certainly argued that Jesus was a King and were attempting to establish him as a King when he was killed. Their recourse in light of his death was to announce a second coming of that same man, to finally take his Kingdom.
There simply is no getting around the full and clear wording of both the Old and New Testaments with respect to this. If Xians have passages they want to show where God or Jesus extoll and encourage democracy this would be the time to post those quotes.
Islam is essentially not that different. Unlike Judaism and Xianity, it did not so much form within and then fight democratic nations. It formed within tribal and near feudal nations and then fought democracies. So its beginnings outside democracy are not unusual.
Unlike Jesus, but like Moses and David and to some degree Paul (at least his followers), Mohammed was able to establish his nation and so set religious doctrine as national law.
In practice however, which were more democratic, or in its teachings accepting of democratic concepts? It would seem that that is only true within Islam, Source on Islamic Democracy, Source on Islamic Law. Here are some excerpts regarding democratic concepts found within Islam...
Finally Sharia law can be based on ijma, or consensus. Justification for this final approach is drawn from the Hadith where Muhammad states; "My nation cannot agree on an error." The ummah, or community of Muslims, comes together with each person applying his or her ijtihad, or independent thought and judgement, to achieve this consensus. The role of ulema, i.e. scholars, is critical, since they are the ones who study the Islamic law and therefore have authority to represent it.
So even in Sharia, one of the strictest, there is the concept of some level of representative decision making allowed, though it is clearly not wholly democratic. Some subfactions of Sharia have moved on to become even more strict in investing the power to formulate opinion, and so oppose adequate representational models of any kind. This however is not unique, and is best comparable to Mosaic Law.
Indeed traditional Islamic Law as characterized by Sharia, can be viewed as almost directly analogous to Mosaic Law, which is traditional (or fundamentalist) Judaic and to varying degrees Xian law.
But like Judaism and Xianity, there are many flavors of Islam, with ideas of how traditional law and govt must intersect, and muslims (unlike the others) can find support within their texts.
Muslim democrats... {following argument by specific scholar}... argue that concepts in the Qur'an point towards some form of democracy, or at least away from despotism. These concepts include shura (consultation), ijma' (consensus), al-hurriyya (freedom), al-huqquq al-shar'iyya (legitimate rights). For example shura (Aal `Imran 3:159, Ash-Shura 42:38) may include electing leaders to represent and govern on the community’s behalf.
...despotic Islamic governments have abused the Qur'anic concepts for their own ends: "For instance, shura, a doctrine that demands the participation of society in running the affairs of its government, became in reality a doctrine that was manipulated by political and religious elites to secure their economic, social and political interests at the expense of other segments of society,"
and this has been seen as practiced by muslims in Western nations as well as different nonSharia factions within nonWestern nations...
The Sunni tradition, as opposed to the Shia, has tended away from Ayatollah type religious leaders, and the establishment of a religious class that is believed to have special access to divine will. Sunnis argue the Qur'an warns against the establishment of a religious class. Furthermore, Sunnis believe that after the Prophet Muhammad there is no one who has direct access to God’s will, and therefore no one person or group has the legitimacy or authority to claim a pope- or priesthood-like status in the Muslim community.
This stands in stark contrast to the traditions of Judaism and Xianity, and stands as a counter to the arguments against Islam not being compatible with democracy as seen voiced by CS and Faith, and paraphrased well in thise passage...
...{analysts have been led to} dismiss the compatibility of Islam with democracy. The arguments for this position include: Islam and secularism are opposite forces; theocracy is incompatible with democracy; and Muslim culture lacks the liberal social attitudes of democratic societies. For example, Ausuf Ali, a former professor of business at the University of Karachi writing on Beliefnet, argues that the case of Pakistan (where democratically elected governments have been regularly overthrown by the military) shows that: "Islam and the Sharia, or Islamic law, simply do not have the conceptual resources, flexibility, and dynamism to suffice for the governance of a modern state and operation of a rational economy and an expanding civil society." However, it should be noted that Ali is only arguing that "fundamentalist Islam and democracy are not compatible".
CS and Faith argue that fundamentist Islam, or traditional Shia Islam, is the true reading, though this has not been established by either author and stands countered by above refs which include an Islamic scholar. Yes certain strains would be, but those strains are not necessarily the only real, literal interpretation, as has been shown.
Could it be that fundamentalist strains of all Abrahamic religions then fall to the same criticism?
Like Jewish law and Christian canon law, Islamic law means different things to different people in different times and places. In the hands of moderates, religious law can be moderate, even liberal. In the hands of post-Enlightenment readers of philosophy, religious law is relegated to ritual (as opposed to law in a civil sense), or even to just being history. In the hands of fundamentalists, it is legally binding on all people of the faith, and even on all people that come under their control. Islamic law to American Muslims in Dearborn, Boston, or Houston is a very different thing than Islamic law to religious Muslims in Egypt, Saudi Arabia, the Gaza Strip, western China, Nigeria[1], Indonesia, or Pakistan. All of them are following Islamic law, yet it varies as much as individual Muslims vary.
This would seem to be an argument that it is liberal ideas regarding social development which temper conservative strains of all monotheist religion from growing oppressive, and as we have seen there is support within Islam for such social ideas.
As a matter of fact, Mohammad wrote a Constitution in 622, which interestingly enough shows him allowing other faiths, and specifically Jews, to live and be protected by law.
I will admit to my own error of mistaking that for the Charter of Liberties, which set precedents eventually leading toward the US Constitution, but this clearly indicates a use of manmade law which is inclusive of other faiths.
There seems to be no inherent problems then with acceptance of liberal democracy, or secular constitutional law, in Islam, as there would be within any of the other Abrahamic faiths, depending on how militant and fundamentalist (or perhaps opportunist) any particular faction wishes to become.
This message has been edited by holmes, 07-18-2005 06:27 AM
This message has been edited by holmes, 07-18-2005 08:42 AM

holmes
"...what a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away.."(D. Bros)

Replies to this message:
 Message 2 by Faith, posted 07-18-2005 9:45 PM Silent H has replied
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Faith 
Suspended Member (Idle past 1465 days)
Posts: 35298
From: Nevada, USA
Joined: 10-06-2001


Message 2 of 30 (224527)
07-18-2005 9:45 PM
Reply to: Message 1 by Silent H
07-18-2005 6:19 AM


Before you put up this thread I had done some googling of my own and discovered more or less what you have here about Roger Bacon, which has made me very annoyed at my earlier sources. Apparently he became a monk because of poverty for instance, so that while he was certainly a Christian, that wasn't the motivation for his scientific work as I had thought. {EDIT: Well it could have been, haven't read enough to be sure. He was a Christian certainly, but it didn't come out of his being a monk in any way.} I knew the church persecuted scientists -- that wasn't disputed. But the idea was that they persecuted them on the basis of their love affair with the pagan Aristotle. However, that applies more to the center-of-the-universe questions, and I don't know why they persecuted Bacon -- haven't taken the time to track it down. Nevertheless, science does not conflict with the Bible -- until evolution of course.
And yes, I also read about the scientific work by Muslims. However, my claim has always been only that EMPIRICAL science developed in the West, the scientific experimental method, and that it originated with Roger Bacon. Although your sources declare that it began with the Muslims, it says "arguably developed in early Muslim philosophy," and points to certain achievements as possible evidence for this, apparently there is no direct evidence for this. Bacon, however, wrote a treatise on it, which is no doubt why the idea is attributed to him. Internet History Sourcebooks Project
If I had to guess, I'd say that the method certainly had been used before Bacon, just because human ingenuity would naturally think of such methods for testing certain ideas, but that Bacon gets the credit for defining the method and isolating it from other methods so that it could develop as a trend in its own right.
Just for further reference, this looks like a source of all kinds of useful information on the subject:
Internet History Sourcebooks Project
=======================
As for democracy, I'll leave that one to Canadian Steve to argue, except to say that the basic point he was making about democracy, and that I was making about science, was that it came to fruition in the Christian West, which in itself demonstrates that there is no serious antagonism to the ideas. Whatever you say about the Enlightenment, those ideas retained the basic philosophical framework of the Christianity of Europe and in any case its anti-religious aspects were not shared by a majority until quite recently. In the case of science, the early European scientists were all Christians. Roger Bacon wrote much about Christian theological concerns.
Appealing to the Bible, the concept of democracy can't be directly derived from it, but a case for its compatibility with it can be built from the New Testament at least, such as from 1) the universality of Christianity which respects all races and nations, 2) the recognition that not all will become Christians ("few there be that find it"), so that with some historical exceptions we expect to live in a majority nonChristian world, 3) and especially the high value placed on human beings as made in the image of God, and therefore the equality of all in the eyes of God. There are probably other factors I'm not thinking of. If you put all these together you can arrive at a genuinely liberal respectful view of humanity that allows for self-determination. It isn't that Christianity LEADS TO democracy, as it could certainly lead to monarchy just as well. It's only that it has elements that promote it when feasible.
Ancient Israel was a theocracy, an intentional theocracy established by covenant with God, and as such, unique. Christianity can't establish a theocracy as Christians are scattered all over the world, and we are admonished to follow the laws of the land except when they violate God's commandments. Some Christians have, when a homogeneous group as were the early American Puritans, established a government on more or less theocratic principles. However, the idea of freedom of conscience and religious tolerance was developed by Christians. It grew out of the conflicts between the various sects, and is the direct precursor to the First Amendment of the Constitution.
And again, the indisputable fact is that democracy arose in the Christian West.
This message has been edited by Faith, 07-18-2005 09:57 PM
This message has been edited by Faith, 07-19-2005 01:18 AM

This message is a reply to:
 Message 1 by Silent H, posted 07-18-2005 6:19 AM Silent H has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 3 by jar, posted 07-18-2005 10:32 PM Faith has replied
 Message 5 by Silent H, posted 07-19-2005 9:45 AM Faith has replied

  
jar
Member (Idle past 414 days)
Posts: 34026
From: Texas!!
Joined: 04-20-2004


Message 3 of 30 (224535)
07-18-2005 10:32 PM
Reply to: Message 2 by Faith
07-18-2005 9:45 PM


About Bacon
One thing you have to remember about Bacon was that he was very aware of the wealth of knowledge available from the Muslim world. He was actively encouraging translating works from Greek and Arabic. It's very likely he learned from that about scientific method. The Mulims were certainly great scientists (although their religious beliefs did limit the advances in medicine since drawing human bodies were prohibited) but in other areas they definitely knew about and used the scientific method.

Aslan is not a Tame Lion

This message is a reply to:
 Message 2 by Faith, posted 07-18-2005 9:45 PM Faith has replied

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Faith 
Suspended Member (Idle past 1465 days)
Posts: 35298
From: Nevada, USA
Joined: 10-06-2001


Message 4 of 30 (224552)
07-19-2005 1:03 AM
Reply to: Message 3 by jar
07-18-2005 10:32 PM


Re: About Bacon
Yes, I took that into account when I made my comments, and quoted holmes' -- which only said it "arguably" developed in the Islamic world.
This message has been edited by Faith, 07-19-2005 01:20 AM

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Silent H
Member (Idle past 5840 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 5 of 30 (224583)
07-19-2005 9:45 AM
Reply to: Message 2 by Faith
07-18-2005 9:45 PM


Although your sources declare that it began with the Muslims, it says "arguably developed in early Muslim philosophy," and points to certain achievements as possible evidence for this, apparently there is no direct evidence for this. Bacon, however,
Why do you say there is no direct evidence for this? Just because it says "arguably", does not mean it is doubtful, nor that there is no evidence.
What I find interesting is that you continue to push the Bacon theory, when my sources clearly stated that attributing scientific theory to Bacon is false.
So you write off muslims because there is the word "arguable" (in the positive sense), and hang on to Bacon despite the phrase "falsely attributed to".
I do understand Bacon wrote a treatise which involved that. The question (for you) is from what writings did he get that knowledge? That would be the evidence that muslims had developed scientific method.
If you are trying to now shift the goal posts to pure empirical science, then you will cut Bacon out altogether. My sources also showed that he leaned toward alchemy, just like most scientists of his day and centuries to come.
the basic point he was making about democracy, and that I was making about science, was that it came to fruition in the Christian West
You will note that my sources refer to the period such things as secular democracy developed as post Christian West, and not Christian West.
There is no debating that it was in the West where empirical science and democracy fluorished, and that the West had been dominated by Xianity for over a millenium which meant these things emerged from Xian cultures.
That is mere coincidence, until you develop an argument beyond that correlation. After all they were also mainly white. They were also mainly men. They were also almost to a man, not evangelical nor fundamentalist. Should I make those criteria?
The fact you guys keep ignoring, in order to restate that flimsy correlation, is that science and democracy fell apart under a Xian dominated society, whether you call it not real Xianity or not, and then reappeared under the guidance of men that firmly rejected Xian dogma or control of scientific method and government.
But this is to get off topic. Remember this is about Islam, and claims that Islam is not conducive to science and democracy. Should I take it that you are beginning to understand that it can be just as conducive, just like with other religions, it is not the most fundamentalist strains?
However, the idea of freedom of conscience and religious tolerance was developed by Christians.
No it wasn't. That had been practiced millenia before. What evidence do you have of this? The scholars of the enlightenment which examined this subject were generally not Xians in the way that you mean it, if in fact they had a faith at all.
I might add that you, just as CS before you, have skipped the whole end of Xian mythology. Without a belief in the second coming one is not truly a Xian in the religious sense. And the second coming in its literal worded sense (which is the criteria CS created) is that Jesus comes back and kills all that do not believe in order to create his kingdom on earth.
Nevertheless, science does not conflict with the Bible -- until evolution of course.
We have already been over this, and I gave you evidence, before you ran. The church itself had bibilical issues with Galileo, and that is just one case. Look up how they hampered medicinal knowledge and practice during the plagues. Look up what they did to poor Bruno. And check out what it says about girls and hymens.
Sorry, but there are definitely issues. Actually does the above mean there are no problems with the flood and only evolution? Evidence for no flood came well before evolution.

holmes
"...what a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away.."(D. Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 2 by Faith, posted 07-18-2005 9:45 PM Faith has replied

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Tal
Member (Idle past 5697 days)
Posts: 1140
From: Fort Bragg, NC
Joined: 12-29-2004


Message 6 of 30 (224607)
07-19-2005 11:21 AM
Reply to: Message 5 by Silent H
07-19-2005 9:45 AM


Look up how they hampered medicinal knowledge and practice during the plagues.
Quite the opposite. The Bible was referenced to cure the bubonic plague in Europe.
Not to mention soldier's practicing field sanitation originated in the bible.
The principle of burying excrement and filth was given by the Scriptures over 1400 years before Christ. In Deuteronomy, God told Moses and the children of Israel:
"You shall have a place outside the camp and you shall go out to it; and you shall have a stick with your weapons; and when you sit down outside, you shall dig a hole with it, and turn back and cover up your excrement" (23:12-13, RSV)
The next standing Army to specifically carry a tool to bury their fecal matter was the US Army late in the 19th Century. This E-Tool is still a standard issue item to all soldiers.
Strictly speaking, of course, the Bible is not a health text book or medical manual. But it does lay the foundation of knowledge, and reveals many health laws which mankind has required thousands of years to rediscover.

I helped scare an old person-I stopped someone from keeping more of their money-So what if people want to have say in the places they live and the cars that they drive-I gave money to an environmental group that helped keep us dependant on foreign oil-I help the enemies of democracy get stronger by telling them laws don’t matter-What if one day I need an abortion-Sex with an intern, everybody does it-I help teach kids around America that America is always wrong
Do you know what your DNC stands for?

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Replies to this message:
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Faith 
Suspended Member (Idle past 1465 days)
Posts: 35298
From: Nevada, USA
Joined: 10-06-2001


Message 7 of 30 (224642)
07-19-2005 2:16 PM
Reply to: Message 5 by Silent H
07-19-2005 9:45 AM


Pushing? I practically conceded! But "arguably" means they can make a case for it but the evidence isn't open and shut. That's how I've always understood the term. And I was simply trying to account for why, as your own sources say, Bacon has always been credited with being the originator of empirical science. Well, there isn't DIRECT evidence of its use prior to him, or you would have given it, and I clearly conceded that it probably was in use, especially since certain kinds of scientific knowledge probably depend upon it -- but you haven't made that case, I made it for you. AND Bacon DID write a treatise that clearly speaks in a manner of INTRODUCING the idea as an identifiable method.
And you are wrong, crediting Bacon with being the impetus to empirical science does not mean one has to assume he did no other kind of science.
Now YOU are moving the goal posts. And now you think you've proved that ALL science of any note had no Christian influence? You haven't proved a thing except that the Muslims did do science.
The "Biblical" grounds the Church used were made to justify Aristotelian science as I understand it, and WHATEVER the Roman Church did wouldn't surprise me anyway, as by the late middle ages it wasn't Christian or Biblical in any meaningful sense at all, although I do believe that Europe was fairly well Christianized in a basic sense by the time of Bacon -- close anyway -- missionaries were still going out to parts of Europe very late. Also, the Reformation exerted as strong a Christian influence as the Roman Church, and a purer one, and had nothing whatever against science.
There IS no "post" Christian West until the last century and even THAT is "arguable." Is that the period to which you are confining the development of democratic ideas? And the idea of "secular" is about FIFTY years old, or even twenty. Good grief, the term was hardly used to describe government until yesterday.
Freedom of conscience was John Owen's theme song, the Puritan dean of Oxford during the period that John Locke was a student there, as I already said, and that's easy to prove. Your job is to prove it had an earlier origin. Locke was nominally a Christian but I'm willing to concede that he was no Christian at all if you want. It doesn't matter. The idea grew out of the Christian sectarian conflicts and the Enlightenment ultimately secularized it as it did many other ideas that derived originally from a Christian seedbed.
As for the Second Coming I haven't understood what it has to do with anything whatever. What is it you want me to address and why?
I'm not running. I just don't care about this topic that much and said about all I thought there was to say. I've conceded that you were right about Muslim science. What's with your belligerent attitude? I really do not get you. I'm really not into this topic at all, except I'll try to answer whatever you are trying to get at about the Second Coming if you will explain it so it makes sense.
I'm getting the impression that Canadian Steve doesn't intend to take your challenge, which is too bad as I really didn't want to get into it to any great extent.
About science, it would be interesting to know why Muslim science came to a halt while it took off in the West after Bacon (even under persecution).
This message has been edited by Faith, 07-19-2005 06:40 PM

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Faith 
Suspended Member (Idle past 1465 days)
Posts: 35298
From: Nevada, USA
Joined: 10-06-2001


Message 8 of 30 (224693)
07-19-2005 7:01 PM
Reply to: Message 1 by Silent H
07-18-2005 6:19 AM


"Dark Ages"
About the supposed responsibility of Christianity for the "Dark Ages:" Europe simply WAS "dark" in that it was tribal and pagan and had no organization or literacy or civilization whatever until first the Roman Empire and then Christian missionaries influenced it toward civilization. This was a long drawn-out process. You can't say Europe was fully Christianized until well into the LATE Middle Ages, and the early form of its Christianization in many parts was influenced by doctrinal confusions and bits and pieces of the old pagan religions of the various tribes.
The "Dark Ages" was simply the natural result of the collapse of the Roman Empire, leaving Europe to its illiterate tribal warring pagan ways. GRADUALLY through the Middle Ages Christianity civilized it, literacy gradually developed at least among the clergy, some histories were kept for the first time, mostly by the Roman Church but also by some independent monasteries in Keltic lands. The light that finally came to Europe came BY Christianity. Civilization MIGHT have come by the Roman Empire eventually but it didn't happen that way.
HISTORY OF THE CHRISTIAN CHURCH*
This message has been edited by Faith, 07-19-2005 07:06 PM

This message is a reply to:
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Ooook!
Member (Idle past 5835 days)
Posts: 340
From: London, UK
Joined: 09-29-2003


Message 9 of 30 (224829)
07-20-2005 5:39 AM
Reply to: Message 6 by Tal
07-19-2005 11:21 AM


Quite the opposite. The Bible was referenced to cure the bubonic plague in Europe.
That's quite a statement! Can you present the evidence that backs that up?
The word that really amazes me in the second sentence is cure. How on earth did the bible help to develop the antibiotics required to eradicate the bubonic plague from Europe?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 6 by Tal, posted 07-19-2005 11:21 AM Tal has replied

Replies to this message:
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Tal
Member (Idle past 5697 days)
Posts: 1140
From: Fort Bragg, NC
Joined: 12-29-2004


Message 10 of 30 (224932)
07-20-2005 3:49 PM
Reply to: Message 9 by Ooook!
07-20-2005 5:39 AM


The word that really amazes me in the second sentence is cure. How on earth did the bible help to develop the antibiotics required to eradicate the bubonic plague from Europe?
Antibiotics!?!?!?
Holy...
Antibiotics weren't discovered until 1929 by Alexander Fleming.
Try Quarantine.

I helped scare an old person-I stopped someone from keeping more of their money-So what if people want to have say in the places they live and the cars that they drive-I gave money to an environmental group that helped keep us dependant on foreign oil-I help the enemies of democracy get stronger by telling them laws don’t matter-What if one day I need an abortion-Sex with an intern, everybody does it-I help teach kids around America that America is always wrong
Do you know what your DNC stands for?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 9 by Ooook!, posted 07-20-2005 5:39 AM Ooook! has replied

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Trixie
Member (Idle past 3726 days)
Posts: 1011
From: Edinburgh
Joined: 01-03-2004


Message 11 of 30 (224989)
07-20-2005 7:00 PM
Reply to: Message 10 by Tal
07-20-2005 3:49 PM


Quarantine???
Quarantine doesn't cure plague!!! Or any other disease for that matter!! It might stop the disease spreading, but it does nothing for those who already have it. Can you really believe that those people suffering from plague, when quarantined from non-infected people, were "cured"? I think you need to find out what "cured" means in the context of disease.

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jar
Member (Idle past 414 days)
Posts: 34026
From: Texas!!
Joined: 04-20-2004


Message 12 of 30 (224993)
07-20-2005 7:07 PM
Reply to: Message 11 by Trixie
07-20-2005 7:00 PM


Re: Quarantine???
Not to mention the fact that issolating sick folk was around for many tens of thousands if not hundreds of thousands of years before the Bible was even written. I could make an equally good case for quarantine coming from Norse Mythology, Greek Mythology or Druid medicine.

Aslan is not a Tame Lion

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Replies to this message:
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Chiroptera
Inactive Member


Message 13 of 30 (224997)
07-20-2005 7:18 PM
Reply to: Message 11 by Trixie
07-20-2005 7:00 PM


Re: Quarantine???
Also, bubonic plague is spread mainly by rats (and their fleas) which are notoriously hard to keep isolated, so quarantine was not an effective strategy for the plague, if I recall correctly.

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Ooook!
Member (Idle past 5835 days)
Posts: 340
From: London, UK
Joined: 09-29-2003


Message 14 of 30 (225047)
07-21-2005 4:55 AM
Reply to: Message 10 by Tal
07-20-2005 3:49 PM


Again, the key word is cure
Try Quarantine
Well, I guess all of the times the plague kept coming back to Europe century after century pretty much shows that it didn't cure it at all. But even if quarantine may have stopped it spreading to some degree, even if you can present evidence that there are passages in the bible that describe quarantine procedures it doesn't count as evidence because it would have been common sense at the time. Kind of like finding a passage in Solomon that says:
'And if you want to avoid dyed fabrics running then seperate your washes into whites and coloured'
So when you say:
Antibiotics weren't discovered until 1929 by Alexander Fleming.
I am well aware of this, but Bubonic plague is caused by a bacteria (Yersinia pestis). The only way to 'cure' it is to treat patients with antibiotics. Was the bible instrumental in this? Were the people who identified the bacteria responsible following instructions left in the scriptures?

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Tal
Member (Idle past 5697 days)
Posts: 1140
From: Fort Bragg, NC
Joined: 12-29-2004


Message 15 of 30 (225058)
07-21-2005 7:00 AM
Reply to: Message 12 by jar
07-20-2005 7:07 PM


Re: Quarantine???
Not to mention the fact that issolating sick folk was around for many tens of thousands if not hundreds of thousands of years before the Bible was even written.
Proof?

I helped scare an old person-I stopped someone from keeping more of their money-So what if people want to have say in the places they live and the cars that they drive-I gave money to an environmental group that helped keep us dependant on foreign oil-I help the enemies of democracy get stronger by telling them laws don’t matter-What if one day I need an abortion-Sex with an intern, everybody does it-I help teach kids around America that America is always wrong
Do you know what your DNC stands for?

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 Message 12 by jar, posted 07-20-2005 7:07 PM jar has replied

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