Declaration of Arbroath

So is it "utterly disgraceful" for evolutionsts to point out the fact that the Declaration of Arbroath does NOT claim that the Scots are descended from the Israelites ? That it instead puts their origin in Scythia, thus claiming that they are descended from the Scythians ?If you think so then please explain why people should simply accept what Ray says, even if it is obviously false.?

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From a quick reading, I think ray is probably correct that the reference to Israel in context is meant to indicate they feel that is their origin

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How long does it take to read it carefully ? It is perfectly obvious that the reference to the Israelites is employed only as a time-marker in the actual text - and there has been nothing from Ray that sensibly supports any other reading.And - given the influence of the Church at the time, both in politics and history - it is not surprising that they would choose a major Bibical event as a date-marker.(I would add that according to modern historical knowledge they are very wrong - the Scots invaded Scotland from Ireland hundreds of years later - the earliest dating I have seen puts the first settlement in Scotland in the 2nd Century AD, and that was only a colony of the Irish kingdom of Dalriada)n

Please support the assertion that "Scythians" was intended to mean "sons of Isaac". Simply asserting that Gene Scott says so is not evidence.

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The point is the Scots are CLAIMING ancestry from Israel,

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Then the fact that there is no such claim in the Declaration of Arbroath refutes the point.

Of course the Declaration of Arbroath only states that the ancestors of the Scots came from Scythia, not that they were called Scythians.Even if there is a way to construe this as implying Hebrew ancestry it is hardly a clear declaration to that effect.

The declararation of Arbroath seems to be about independance from English rule. Perhaps the writer chose the Exodus as a dating reference because it marked the freedom of Israel from Egyptian rule.