Wait a second here, if the homology arguement works in favor of common ancestor then why does the inverse logic not work. You want to focus on anecdotal evidence that favors one small segment of on ERV mutation. It's the progressive nature of the mutation that makes it so appealing a proof of common ancestry but when it is in OWM and not in humans at all you just want to dismiss it.
You might want to reconsider a simple assumption. What rational reason to you have to assume that 8% of the genome is made up of the fossilized remains of viruses. These germline invasions are rare at best, the idea that hundreds of millions of base pairs of DNA are permenantly fixed in genomes by viruses is absured.
The importance of ERV sequences as supporting evidence for common ancestry is that these sequences have been found at the same locations in the genomes of different species. The most likely explanation is that the retroviral DNA integrated itself into the genome of a common ancestor.
By comparison, PtERV sequences are not found in the same locations in the genomes of different species. This is what you would expect of retroviruses randomly inserting themselves into the genomes of separate species.
And as I already said, after integrating into the genome, ERV's are able to copy themselves elsewhere in the host genome. You do not need to rely on germline invasion to account for all the ERV sequences present in our genome. But as I asked in my OP, and as mick reiterated, what is the creationist explanation for ERV sequences?
And just to add to those numbers, the human genome is 3 billion base pairs long, and only about 1.5% of this represents protein-coding genes.
Let me ask you this, the gorilla split with both the human and chimpanzee lineage well before the austropithicene/homo split. Would you expect that 83% of the protein coding genes would show differences at an amino acid seqeunce level? You guys like to make a priori assumptions and use anecdotal evidence but you don't like making predictions. How about the spit between western and eastern gorillas, how much would you expect two seperate species to diverge within the same genus? The gorilla/chimpanzee split goes back further then the austropithecene/homo one, how would you expect the genes to line up?
Firstly I don't see how your questions relate to my quoted remarks. My point was that mutations and rearrangements affect a small proportion of the genome, and protein coding genes only take up a small proportion of the overall genome, so there is room for manoeuvre.
As to your questions, I don't think you can predict an accurate percentage for the divergence of amino acid sequence between species. With the chimp and human genomes we compared the sequences, identifying the mutations and various transposable elements, to get an accurate view of how much they diverge. The same process can be used for gorillas or any other species.
And just what would anecdotal evidence be in this context?
Human Genome Projects website. It's a wonderfull place to go and look at genomics without all of this creation/evolution bluster muddying up the waters.
Do you have a link to where on the HGP website you got that information from?
Edited by Evil Homer, : No reason given.
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