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Author Topic:   The omniscience of god?
Blzebub 
Suspended Member (Idle past 5262 days)
Posts: 129
Joined: 10-10-2009


Message 31 of 70 (531184)
10-16-2009 12:30 PM
Reply to: Message 29 by purpledawn
10-16-2009 7:21 AM


Re: DIfference in Interpretation Approaches
You're looking at the simple reading of the text which does not support the current view of omniscience in every writing.
Yes. It seems like the straightforward way to approach it.
Jaywill even said that omniscience is a theological construct.
Are you saying that god isn't actually omniscient, and that the concept is man-made?
God is still portrayed in the OT as being capable of anger and jealousy, which is a paradox for an omniscient being.
Yup.
Scripture does become confusing when different interpretations are used. One person is looking at plain text (p'shat), another is looking at hidden meanings (remez), and another is looking at current teachings (d'rash). Even in looking at the simple reading, one has to remember that there are various styles of writing in the Bible: Fictional, poetic, historical, songs, letters, etc.
So ... we shouldn't take the bible literally?
no interpretation should contradict the simple reading of the text.
So ... we should take the bible literally!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 29 by purpledawn, posted 10-16-2009 7:21 AM purpledawn has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 33 by purpledawn, posted 10-16-2009 3:01 PM Blzebub has replied

  
Blzebub 
Suspended Member (Idle past 5262 days)
Posts: 129
Joined: 10-10-2009


Message 32 of 70 (531188)
10-16-2009 12:41 PM
Reply to: Message 25 by jaywill
10-15-2009 11:01 PM


Re: a few glitches
I do not feel duty bound to allow creed to rise above what the Scripture says. For me what the Bible says is far more important then any theological axiom like "God by definition is omnipotent" or "God by definition is omniscient".
I've quoted "what the Bible says" verbatim. The words in the bible show quite clearly that the particular god under discussion within its pages is neither omniscient, nor omnipotent.
And I have demonstrated that being both is logically impossible, in any case.
Why can't you answer my questions?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 25 by jaywill, posted 10-15-2009 11:01 PM jaywill has not replied

  
purpledawn
Member (Idle past 3478 days)
Posts: 4453
From: Indiana
Joined: 04-25-2004


Message 33 of 70 (531219)
10-16-2009 3:01 PM
Reply to: Message 31 by Blzebub
10-16-2009 12:30 PM


Re: DIfference in Interpretation Approaches
quote:
So ... we shouldn't take the bible literally?
When some say they take the Bible literally, they mean that the events described actually happened as described. There actually was a talking snake, etc. That isn't really reading the writings in their simple meaning. I don't advise that type of literalism.
quote:
So ... we should take the bible literally!
For the simple meaning, one should read the Bible the same way one does any other book. The words have their normal meaning unless literary devices and creativity are employed to form another meaning. Literalism doesn't negate understanding figurative language. Because we are so far removed from the original audience, we have a harder time understanding the idioms, humor, slang, politics, daily life, and religious practices of the original audience. We can guess and do the best we can, but we still miss the spirit of the people. One does need to do their best to understand what the author was trying to tell their audience, not us.

"Peshat is what I say and derash is what you say." --Nehama Leibowitz

This message is a reply to:
 Message 31 by Blzebub, posted 10-16-2009 12:30 PM Blzebub has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 34 by Blzebub, posted 10-16-2009 7:48 PM purpledawn has replied

  
Blzebub 
Suspended Member (Idle past 5262 days)
Posts: 129
Joined: 10-10-2009


Message 34 of 70 (531284)
10-16-2009 7:48 PM
Reply to: Message 33 by purpledawn
10-16-2009 3:01 PM


Re: DIfference in Interpretation Approaches
I'm not quite certain what you mean. I suspect you have just written a global "get out clause" for anything controversial in the bible. Basically, any passage means whatever you want it to mean.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 33 by purpledawn, posted 10-16-2009 3:01 PM purpledawn has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 35 by purpledawn, posted 10-16-2009 9:23 PM Blzebub has replied

  
purpledawn
Member (Idle past 3478 days)
Posts: 4453
From: Indiana
Joined: 04-25-2004


Message 35 of 70 (531294)
10-16-2009 9:23 PM
Reply to: Message 34 by Blzebub
10-16-2009 7:48 PM


PaRDeS
quote:
I'm not quite certain what you mean. I suspect you have just written a global "get out clause" for anything controversial in the bible. Basically, any passage means whatever you want it to mean.
The simple reading or P'shat, should not be a "get out" clause. P'shat should be the foundation we can always go back to when teachings seem fishy or go against common sense.
The p'shat is the plain, simple meaning of the text. The understanding of scripture in its natural, normal sense using the customary meanings of the word’s being used, literary style, historical and cultural setting, and context. The p'shat is the keystone of Scripture understanding. If we discard the p'shat we lose any real chance of an accurate understanding and we are no longer objectively deriving meaning from the Scriptures (exegesis), but subjectively reading meaning into the scriptures (eisogesis). The Talmud states that no passage loses its p'shat:
Talmud Shabbat 63a - Rabbi Kahana objected to Mar son of Rabbi Huna: But this refers to the words of the Torah? A verse cannot depart from its plain meaning, he replied.
Note that within the p'shat you can find several types of language, including figurative, symbolic and allegorical. The following generic guidelines can be used to determine if a passage is figurative and therefore figurative even in its p'shat:
1. When an inanimate object is used to describe a living being, the statement is figurative. Example: Isaiah 5:7 - For the vineyard of the Lord of hosts is the house of Israel, and the men of Judah his pleasant plant; and he looked for judgment, but behold oppression; for righteousness, but behold a cry.
2. When life and action are attributed to an inanimate object the statement is figurative. Example: Zechariah 5:1-3 - Then I turned, and lifted up my eyes, and looked, and behold a flying scroll. And he said to me, What do you see? And I answered, I see a flying scroll; its length is twenty cubits, and its width ten cubits. And he said to me, This is the curse that goes out over the face of the whole earth; for everyone who steals shall be cut off henceforth, according to it; and everyone who swears falsely shall be cut off henceforth, according to it.
3. When an expression is out of character with the thing described, the statement is figurative. Example: Psalm 17:8 - Keep me as the apple of the eye, hide me under the shadow of your wings ...
Apologetics are used to smooth over inconsistencies in the Bible and issues controversial to current beliefs or teachings.
It's difficult in these discussions, when one is looking at the p'shat and others are using another form of interpretation or apologetics. Apples and oranges.
If you're a religion-free person, then just read the Bible as you would any other book and try to understand the audience if you really want to understand. There are a lot of different authors and styles in the Christian Bible and they all have various reasons for why they wrote and what the writing was supposed to tell their audience. Just remember that the writings reflects the times, just like our writings do today.

"Peshat is what I say and derash is what you say." --Nehama Leibowitz

This message is a reply to:
 Message 34 by Blzebub, posted 10-16-2009 7:48 PM Blzebub has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 37 by Blzebub, posted 10-17-2009 3:25 AM purpledawn has replied

  
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1962 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 36 of 70 (531310)
10-16-2009 11:39 PM
Reply to: Message 26 by Blzebub
10-16-2009 3:28 AM


Re: a few glitches
2 Thessalonians 2:11-12 (King James Version)
11And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie:
Because the opposers did not love the truth God sends them strong delusion. Since they loved not the truth He allows them to follow the lies of the Antichrist.
This is not the lying of God. On the contrary. He spoke truth to them repeatedly and they reject it and have no love for it. So He allows them to fall headlong and full throttle into the deception caused by Satan's man the Antichrist.
You may protest that God sends this delusion. In the sense that He removes the restraining force keeping Satanic deception from running rampant ( 2 Thess. 2:6-8) it is an indirect "sending" according to God's permissive will.
12That they all might be damned who believed not the truth, but had pleasure in unrighteousness.
That is correct. And this has nothing to do with God lying but of Him turning the truth haters over to their self destroying love of deception.
1 Kings 22:21-23 (King James Version)
And there came forth a spirit, and stood before the LORD, and said, I will persuade him.
And the LORD said unto him, Wherewith? And he said, I will go forth, and I will be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets. And he said, Thou shalt persuade him, and prevail also: go forth, and do so.
That is an interesting passage. And it goes well as a parallel passage to 2 Thess.2:6-8. For for sure God is sending Ahab strong delusion and for the same reason as He will turn over the victims of the Antichrist. They loved not the truth.
And you did not quote the enough of it to get an accurate picture. Verse 19 tells what the vision of the prophet Micaiah:
"And Miciaiah said, Hear therefore the word of Jehovah, I saw Jehovah sitting upon His throne, and all the host of heaven standing by Him, on the right and on the left." (v.19)
I take this matter of the hosts being "on the right and on the left" to signify that God had them divided up separating the obedient spirits from the rebellious and evil spirits. It is very similar to the separating the sheep on His right hand from the goats to be damned on His left hand:
"But when the Son of Man comes in His glory and all the angels with Him, at that time He will sit on the throne of His glory.
And all the nations will be gathered before Him, and He will separate them from one another, just as the shepherd separates the sheep from the goats. And He will set the sheep on His right hand and the goats on the left." (Matt. 25:32,33)
Now this vision of Micaiah seems to be a judgmental separation of the spirits on either side of God rather than a combining them all together.
Now therefore, behold, the LORD hath put a lying spirit in the mouth of all these thy prophets, and the LORD hath spoken evil concerning thee.
This is also not God lying. But of the rebel spirits who are of the opposition party siding with God's enemy, He providencially allows a lying spirit to get into the mouths of all the prophets. Judging from the degradation of the times, the prophets were morally in bad shape to begin with is sometimes the case. In Ezekiel and Jeremiah God condemns groups of prophets for speaking lies pretensiously to His people.
I take this as another instance in God's permissive will turning over the truth rejector to eat the fruits of his own stubburness.
Judges 1:19 (King James Version)
And the LORD was with Judah; and he drave out the inhabitants of the mountain; but could not drive out the inhabitants of the valley, because they had chariots of iron.
My version reads "And Jehovah was with Judah. And they took possession of the hill country, but they could not dispossess the inhabitants of iron."
It reads "THEY [Judah] could not" an not "God could not".
The question here is not why didn't God simply dispossess these enemies without any cooperation from Judah. Rather something in their lack of consecration hindered them from fully benefitting from God's help. They also were not able to subdue Ai at first because of the disobedience in the matter of stealing the cursed objects from Jericho. The problem was not on God's side but on thier lack of consecration.
God works here in coordination and cooperation with man. He does not act here unilaterally or usurp human will.
So this is not an instance in the inability of God but in the weakness in the Divine / Human coordination due to the incomplete consecration on the human side.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 26 by Blzebub, posted 10-16-2009 3:28 AM Blzebub has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 38 by Blzebub, posted 10-17-2009 7:35 AM jaywill has replied

  
Blzebub 
Suspended Member (Idle past 5262 days)
Posts: 129
Joined: 10-10-2009


Message 37 of 70 (531329)
10-17-2009 3:25 AM
Reply to: Message 35 by purpledawn
10-16-2009 9:23 PM


Re: PaRDeS
P'shat should be the foundation we can always go back to when teachings seem fishy or go against common sense.
It's difficult in these discussions, when one is looking at the p'shat and others are using another form of interpretation or apologetics.
I'm using "p'shat", yet it shows biblical contradictions, or "paradoxes" as you call them.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 35 by purpledawn, posted 10-16-2009 9:23 PM purpledawn has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 39 by purpledawn, posted 10-17-2009 8:17 AM Blzebub has replied

  
Blzebub 
Suspended Member (Idle past 5262 days)
Posts: 129
Joined: 10-10-2009


Message 38 of 70 (531350)
10-17-2009 7:35 AM
Reply to: Message 36 by jaywill
10-16-2009 11:39 PM


Re: a few glitches
You may protest that God sends this delusion. In the sense that He removes the restraining force keeping Satanic deception from running rampant ( 2 Thess. 2:6-8) it is an indirect "sending" according to God's permissive will.
This is just more wriggling on the hook. Allowing an untruth is morally the same as lying.
for sure God is sending Ahab strong delusion
Lying, IOW.
This is also not God lying. But of the rebel spirits who are of the opposition party siding with God's enemy, He providencially allows a lying spirit to get into the mouths of all the prophets.
Deceiving people as to what is true is called "lying".
My version reads "And Jehovah was with Judah. And they took possession of the hill country, but they could not dispossess the inhabitants of iron."
This raises the problem of which version of the bible is the correct one?
Rather something in their lack of consecration hindered them from fully benefitting from God's help.
LOL.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 36 by jaywill, posted 10-16-2009 11:39 PM jaywill has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 40 by jaywill, posted 10-17-2009 9:57 AM Blzebub has not replied

  
purpledawn
Member (Idle past 3478 days)
Posts: 4453
From: Indiana
Joined: 04-25-2004


Message 39 of 70 (531352)
10-17-2009 8:17 AM
Reply to: Message 37 by Blzebub
10-17-2009 3:25 AM


Re: PaRDeS
quote:
I'm using "p'shat", yet it shows biblical contradictions, or "paradoxes" as you call them.
Yes, you are wanting to understand the p'shat or simple reading.
Are the contradictions or paradoxes between the various writers of the Bible or contradictions between current theology and what was written?
Omniscience is a later theology. In the OT, God shows the same foibles that plague mankind: anger, jealousy, frustration, regret, etc.
Current theology says God is all knowing (omniscient), but what kind of knowledge does God actually have?
Factual or Propositional: Just the facts.
Procedural: Knowing how to accomplish a task.
Experiential: From direct experience.
To be all knowing, God would need to be capable of all three aspects of knowledge.
Some say God will always be wiser than man, but wisdom develops through experiential knowledge.
Can a nonphysical God transcending time and space have experiential knowledge of sex and other physical acts?
Can God experience raising children?
Can God experience loss of a mate?
Can God experience pain, hunger, etc.?
As easily as pain is inflicted on humans by God, I would say no. How can God advise humans if he can't experience?
When it comes to procedural, I also have my doubts. God has been known to give procedural information to humans, but he seems lacking when it comes to managing civilization. When current theology presents a god who supposedly has to have his own son killed to clean up a mess that if done right the first time should not have happened, then the skills aren't there.
Factual knowledge is considered a given since God supposedly can see into the future, but the Bible stories don't support that idea either.
Genesis 18
20. Then the LORD said, "The outcry against Sodom and Gomorrah is so great and their sin so grievous
21. that I will go down and see if what they have done is as bad as the outcry that has reached me. If not, I will know."
God heard the 911s but had to go down and check it out.
The Bible stories clearly show that God can be surprised and in some cases he has to "physically" check on details. That puts a crimp in the omniscient capabilities.
1: having infinite awareness, understanding, and insight
2: possessed of universal or complete knowledge
Now the Sodom and Gomorrah story is probably just that, more story than an actual historical event.
You're right in Message 22 when you show that God is capable of changing his mind. Some claim that God doesn't change his mind, but that also goes against the idea of a merciful god that the NT writers presented. To be merciful, one has to be able to change their mind. Since God can change his mind, he doesn't fit the current idea of omniscience.

"Peshat is what I say and derash is what you say." --Nehama Leibowitz

This message is a reply to:
 Message 37 by Blzebub, posted 10-17-2009 3:25 AM Blzebub has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 43 by Blzebub, posted 10-17-2009 12:40 PM purpledawn has not replied

  
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1962 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 40 of 70 (531362)
10-17-2009 9:57 AM
Reply to: Message 38 by Blzebub
10-17-2009 7:35 AM


Re: a few glitches
This is just more wriggling on the hook. Allowing an untruth is morally the same as lying.
I don't see this interpretation as "wiggling on the hook". It may be dealing with a few difficult passages. I don't mind that because I am not naive to assume the subject matter about God's nature and ways will always be easy to understand.
That passages about divine allowance of deception overtaking the truth haters reveals judgment. The truth came to them and they repeatedly rejected it. Both instances of them being deceived floow long periods in which God repeatedly try to reach them with truth.
Furthermore the Bible squarely deals with the paradox of God's permissive will in one entire book, the book of Job. There Satan accuses God of protecting Job. God gives Satan limited permission to attack first Job's possessions and than Job's physical body. Job however throughout the entire book does not relent in recognizing that it is ultimately God's assault upon him.
Not only does inspiration provide us one whole book to ponder this but a number of times in First Samuel we are told of "an evil spirit from the Jehovah" (1 Sam. 16:14,23;18:10;19:9) that came upon the reprobate King Saul.
These repetitions seemed aim at making sure the reader is adoubly affirmed about what is being said. It is like "You heard me ... and evil spirit from Jehovah". This frank discloser impresses me that the word of God is not running from the irony but faithfully communicating that judgment from God can have such twist.
Interestingly enough, the relief from this "evil spirit from the Lord" is completely reverse when Saul goes to be among the prophets and the Spirit of God comes upon him restoring the depressed King to the grace of God (1 Samuel 19:19-24). King Saul should probably have forgotten his jealous ambitions and remained there with the prophets.
The judgment of an evil spirit coming upon Saul or the lying spirit causing the prophets to mislead rebellious king Ahab is alluded to in this article:
At least three clarifications are worthy of consideration. First, the Bible frequently refers to acts of deserved punishment that God has inflicted upon people throughout history. For example, He brought a global deluge against the Earth’s population (Genesis 6-9) due to rampant human wickedness and depravity (6:5). God did not act inappropriately in doing so, not only because the people deserved nothing less, but also because He repeatedly warned the people of impending disaster, and was longsuffering in giving them ample opportunity to repent (1 Peter 3:20; 2 Peter 2:5; 3:9). The Bible provides instance after instance where evil people received their just desserts. God is not to be blamed nor deemed unjust for levying deserved punishment for sin, even as honest, impartial judges in America today are not culpable when they mete out just penalties for criminal behavior. Retribution upon flagrant, ongoing, impenitent lawlessness is not only right and appropriate; it is absolutely indispensable and necessary (see Miller, 2002).
In this case, Saul was afflicted with an evil spirit as a punishment for his insistent defiance of God’s will. He had committed flagrant violation of God’s commands on two previous occasions (1 Samuel 13:13-14; 15:11,19). His persistence in this lifelong pattern of disobedient behavior certainly deserved direct punitive response from God (e.g., 31:4). As Keil and Delitzsch maintained: This demon is called ‘an evil spirit (coming) from Jehovah,’ because Jehovah had sent it as a punishment (1976, 2:170). John W. Haley added: And he has a punitive purpose in granting this permission. He uses evil to chastise evil (1977, p. 142). Of course, the reader needs to be aware of the fact that the term for evil is a broad term that need not refer to spiritual wickedness. In fact, it often refers to physical harm or painful hardship (e.g., Genesis 19:19; 2 Samuel 17:14).
A second clarification regarding the sending of an evil spirit upon Saul is the question of, in what sense the spirit was from the Lord. To be honest and fair, the biblical interpreter must be willing to allow the peculiar linguistic features of ancient languages to be clarified and understood in accordance with the way those languages functioned. Specifically, ancient Hebrew (like most all other languages, then and now) was literally loaded with figurative languagei.e., figures of speech, Semitisms, colloquialisms, and idioms. It frequently was the case that [a]ctive verbs were used by the Hebrews to express, not the doing of the thing, but the permission of the thing which the agent is said to do (Bullinger, 1898, p. 823, emp. in orig.; cf. MacKnight, 1954, p. 29). Similarly, the figure of speech known as metonymy of the subject occurs [w]here the action is put for the declaration concerning it: or where what is said to be done is put for what is declared, or permitted, or foretold as to be done: or where an action, said to be done, is put for the giving occasion for such action (Bullinger, p. 570, italics in orig., emp. added). Hence, when the Bible says that the distressing spirit that troubled Saul was from the Lord, the writer was using an idiom to indicate that the Lord allowed or permitted the distressing spirit to come upon Saul. George Williams commented: What God permits He is stated in the Bible to perform (1960, p. 127).
In this second case, God did not directly send upon Saul an evil spirit; rather He allowed it to happen in view of Saul’s own propensity for stubborn disobedience. Gleason Archer commented on this point: By these successive acts of rebellion against the will and law of God, King Saul left himself wide open to satanic influencejust as Judas Iscariot did after he had determined to betray the Lord Jesus (1982, p. 179). One need not necessarily suppose that this demonic influence overwhelmed Saul’s free will. Satan can have power over us only insofar as we encourage or invite him to do sofor what God fills not, the devil will (Clarke, n.d., 2:259).
What I find is the case with many Atheists and Skeptics of the Bible is that they project their own human failures and motives unto God and therefore cannot believe that such a Being exists. They look within themselves and see their imperfections and assume that no Ultimate Governor could possibly as they themselves are. They fail to realize that God is not like them. They have self projected warped thinking which leads them to beleive no God could exist.
This raises the problem of which version of the bible is the correct one?
I do not read or write ancient Hebrew. I depend on English translation. In the Recovery Version when words are supplied by the translator to either interpret or clarify those words are supplied in italics so the reader knows they are not in the original language.
The passage I quoted did not have "they" in italics. But checking a few other versions that I respect:
Judges 1:19, 1901 American Standard Bible - "And Jehovah was with Judah; and he drove out [the inhabitants of] the hill country; for he could not drive out the inhabitants of the valley, because they had chariots of iron."
That version is say "he" - Jehvovah God, was not able to drive them out. You might consider that sympathetic to your view. But my interpretation is the same. In the New Testament Christ the Son did not do many miracles in a certain town because of the people's unbelief (Matt.13:58). So I think the limitation was on the cooperation of the Hebrews (possibly thier weakness in faith) and not on God's inability to act unilaterally.
Darby's New Translation also has "he" there in Judges 1:19. So when in doubt I check more than one English translation.
That man's shortage of cooperation could limit temporarily God's desire to deal with evil forces is a theme consistent from early Genesis. Obviously Adam's disobedience brought the earth under a curse and the previously limited Devil gained a foothold through Adam's unbelief.
That a similar scheme be seen going on in the judgment and conquest of Canaan with Hebrews does not surprise me. Rather something in their lack of consecration hindered them from fully benefitting from God's help.
"If you abide in Me and I in you you shall ask what you will and it shall be done for you." (John 15:7)
We see the same theme repeated that the degree of God accomplishing His will through man depends upon the degree of His people abiding in Him. So a more total consecration facilitates a more powerful coordination of God and man.
"Command Me concerning the works of My hands" (Isaiah 45:11)
We can see that God is ever working towards that full consecration in which His people could command Him concerning His actions.
It should be added that in the book of Joshua God fought for Israel in dramatic ways. And throughout the Old Testament there were high points when the Hebrews prevailed mightily because of their oneness with Jehovah in moral and spiritual cooperation. Judges 1:19 is a deficient instance.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 38 by Blzebub, posted 10-17-2009 7:35 AM Blzebub has not replied

  
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1962 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 41 of 70 (531367)
10-17-2009 10:58 AM


OK, so that seems quite clear: god is everywhere,
I think you are not as clear as you think.
He is not everywhere in the capacity that He ultimately wants. He is not everywhere if He is not in your spiritual being. He is not everywhere if He is not indwelling you as His Holy Spirit to give you eternal life.
Paul discribed the life of Jesus and the Spirit of Jesus as a treasure that had been placed in the earthen vessels of the apostles' beings:
"But we have this treasure in earthen vessels that the excellency of the power may be of God and not out of us." (2 Cor. 4:7)
They were not born with this treasure simply because God is omnipresent. They had to be saved by Christ's redemption and let His Spirit enter. They had to receive Him.
God longs to dwell in man to be man's life. God created the universe. He made man in the image of God something like a glove is made in the image of a human hand. He made man in order to be where He was not from the time of man's creation - within man.
The doctrine of God's omnipresence does not account for God not being in man. In the New Testament He begins to dwell in man as the Spirit of Jesus Christ.
The doctrine of God being "everywhere" as portrayed here is superficial. A more complete view of the whole Bible shows that there are places where God is not where He desires to be.
For example Isaiah wants to be IN man even though He fills the heavens.
Thus says Jehovah, Heaven is my throne and the earth the footstool for My feet. Where is the house that you will build for Me and where is the place of My rest?
For all these things My hand has made ... But to this kind of man will I look, to him who is poor in spirit, who trembles at My word." (See Isa. 66:1,2)
The message here is that God is not satisfied with our sense of His omnipresence in terms of Him being everywhere. He desires a house in man. That is why it says "But to this kind of man will I look". This means to look for His house. The Old Testament saints desired to build Him a house. But ultimately He says His house is to be in a certain kind of man. We should go on from seeing God's omnipresence in the superfiscial way to grasping that He wants to live in man.
Since the eternal purpose of God is to dwell in man there are some problems that have arisen in creation because the omipresent God who fills all heaven and earth is left OUTSIDE of His desired house man.
Though God is almighty He cannot accomplish His eternal purpose unless He dispenses Himself into a place where He is not. That is into human vessel of the saved. For this reason we see the Triune God coming to make an abode with those who love Christ:
"Jesus answered and said to him, If anyone loves Me, he will keep My word and My Father will love him, and We will come to him and make an abode with him." (John 14:23)
He may be everywhere. But He says He and His Father as the Divine "WE" will come to the lover of Jesus and make an abode with him. This making of an abode in the believers in Christ is the building of the house of the Father in which Jesus said there would be many abodes. Not He alone would be one in whom the Father lives. But all His redeemed people would be the many abodes of the Trune God:
"In My Father's house there are many abodes; if it were not so I would have told you: for I go to prepare a place for you. And if I go and prepare a place for you I am coming again and will receive you to Myself that where I am you also may be." (John 14:2,3)
God is everywhere yet in His process to dispense His life into man He must enter where He is not. He must come into the vessel of man's being to make an abode with man. Some men and women will be saved for this reality and God obtains a habitation of God in spirit", ie. the house that He longed for and looked to man for in Isaiah 66:1,2.
It is not simply a matter of God's eyes being everywhere so all knowledge is a piece of cake to Him. He is not satisfied with being everywhere in that sense and seeing everything. He desires to be where He has been shut out. That is in the living vessel of human life. Man is a living container and this omnipresent God's eternal purpose is to dispense Himself into this vessel to build a corporate habitation of God.
Tensions seen in the Bible because the omniscient God and man are at odds is the temporary glitch until He accomplishes His plan to enter into His redeemed people's being. This corporate house of God is called New Jerusalem. And the divine revelation closes with the omnipresent Triune God imparting His life and nature into His people for a corporate dwelling place.
God is not everywhere in the sense that He is not in those rejecting the new covenant salvation:
"Whoever confesses that Jesus is the Son of God, God abides in him and he in God."(1 John 4:15)
Omnipresence does not account for the fact that God is not within the one who does not believe that Jesus is the Son of God. He is within as many as received Him.
In this case all He knows about the person only goes to accumulate an infallible and indisputable record of that persons sins to which he will have to answer to God in judgment.
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.

Replies to this message:
 Message 42 by Blzebub, posted 10-17-2009 12:38 PM jaywill has replied

  
Blzebub 
Suspended Member (Idle past 5262 days)
Posts: 129
Joined: 10-10-2009


Message 42 of 70 (531374)
10-17-2009 12:38 PM
Reply to: Message 41 by jaywill
10-17-2009 10:58 AM


Re:
In this case all He knows about the person only goes to accumulate an infallible and indisputable record of that persons sins to which he will have to answer to God in judgment.
So this particular god is not omniscient. QED.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 41 by jaywill, posted 10-17-2009 10:58 AM jaywill has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 44 by jaywill, posted 10-18-2009 4:37 PM Blzebub has not replied

  
Blzebub 
Suspended Member (Idle past 5262 days)
Posts: 129
Joined: 10-10-2009


Message 43 of 70 (531375)
10-17-2009 12:40 PM
Reply to: Message 39 by purpledawn
10-17-2009 8:17 AM


Re: PaRDeS
You're right in Message 22 when you show that God is capable of changing his mind. Some claim that God doesn't change his mind, but that also goes against the idea of a merciful god that the NT writers presented. To be merciful, one has to be able to change their mind. Since God can change his mind, he doesn't fit the current idea of omniscience.
QED times two. Thanks guys, nice discussion.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 39 by purpledawn, posted 10-17-2009 8:17 AM purpledawn has not replied

  
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1962 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 44 of 70 (531560)
10-18-2009 4:37 PM
Reply to: Message 42 by Blzebub
10-17-2009 12:38 PM


Re:
So this particular god is not omniscient. QED.
I tend to approach the question pragmatically. If He is able to keep an infallible and indisputable record of my life, He is for all intents and purposes omniscient enough for me to realize the need for forgiveness.
God's "omniscient" knowledge of what is in a some deep crater on the dark side of the moon is not that critical to my life.
I don't feel the complusion to defend or defeat that kind of doctrine of omniscience. My practical considerations focus on His knowing of my moral condition before Him and His provision for any defects.
This seems more important to me:
"And there is no creature that is not manifest before Him, but all things are naked and laid bare to the eyes of Him to whom we are to give our account." (Hebrews 4:13)
I am more conerned with this then pursuit of the question of God's omniscience as a purely philosophical pursuit to rationalize - how ominiscient is omniscient is omniscient ?
Edited by jaywill, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 42 by Blzebub, posted 10-17-2009 12:38 PM Blzebub has not replied

  
jaywill
Member (Idle past 1962 days)
Posts: 4519
From: VA USA
Joined: 12-05-2005


Message 45 of 70 (531561)
10-18-2009 4:48 PM
Reply to: Message 4 by Blzebub
10-14-2009 4:24 PM


Re: a few glitches
So god plays silly mind games?
No, that seems to be what you are entertaiing yourself with here.
But hang on... god's omniscience would mean that god would already know in advance that Cain wouldn't confess. So the whole exchange seems a bit pointless.
Except that after Genesis there are 65 other books of the Bible unfolding His salvation and work. So some of us, instead of shrugging our shoulders and seeing it all as pointless, went on to learn more of His interaction with man.
The Atheist has a need to convince herself that any supposed God has no need to exist or do anything. It is not surprising that some sinners would seek refuge in this kind of philosophy. Some of us rather look to God's salvation and purpose to discover how He has made plans to reconcile sinners to Himself.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 4 by Blzebub, posted 10-14-2009 4:24 PM Blzebub has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 46 by bluescat48, posted 10-18-2009 7:41 PM jaywill has replied
 Message 50 by Blzebub, posted 10-19-2009 4:16 PM jaywill has not replied

  
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