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Author Topic:   The Psychology Behind the Belief in Heaven and Hell
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


(1)
Message 43 of 410 (531515)
10-18-2009 10:35 AM
Reply to: Message 38 by DevilsAdvocate
10-18-2009 10:25 AM


Re: I suspect that most Christians do not truely believe in Hell
And you know this because what? Because a book or a religious person told you so. Again circular reasoning.
Dont mean to butt in here, DA, but try and stay focused. Your are reasoning from the faith and belief thread and your perspective is one of a biblical nature. that is your argument is from a book we are assuming to be true FOR THE SAKE of argument. Proceed as if the doctrine of hell is TRUE, if for argument sake only.
Dont interject another principle as to whether the Bible is true in the first place, that is separate argument. proceed on the question of hell as if it is true and the God of the Bible is its author.
Do you understand?
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 38 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 10-18-2009 10:25 AM DevilsAdvocate has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 45 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 10-18-2009 10:40 AM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 47 of 410 (531520)
10-18-2009 10:44 AM
Reply to: Message 45 by DevilsAdvocate
10-18-2009 10:40 AM


Re: I suspect that most Christians do not truely believe in Hell
If one says "righteous" is accepting everything God does or advocates opens up a whole can of worms i.e. the advocation of murder, etc. Do you really want to go there?
You and I have already been down that road together, but Ill let you proceed with Iano, unless I see a good spot to interject something, if that is OK
EAM

This message is a reply to:
 Message 45 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 10-18-2009 10:40 AM DevilsAdvocate has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 57 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 10-18-2009 4:24 PM Dawn Bertot has not replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 68 of 410 (531697)
10-19-2009 11:59 AM
Reply to: Message 66 by DevilsAdvocate
10-19-2009 8:28 AM


Re: Justification By Circular Definition?
A logical statement is a logical statement, whether it comes from Plato or someone else. If you throw logic out why are you even on this discussion board. Are you trying to appeal solely from emotion? What is your point here?
I really dont see why this is so difficult to understand. The existence of God, his will and his morality is a straight forward LOGICAL proposition. God is all there is in existence, everything is God mateial, it follows therefore that any decision determined by him is therefore absolute and complete.
If one wishes to argue that this makes God responsible for others evil actions, it must be remembered that free will exists in them and thoughts are both real and unreal at the same time. Thought are produced by a mechanism made by God, but the thought is independant of God because it posesses no reality in and of itself and is a result of a FREE MORAL DECISION. Yet, it has no tangible existence, except as a contemplation, yet that contemplation does posses reality in that it can be comprehended, understood and evaluated. It is because of these qualities that HE holds an individual responsible, as a result of freewill. Keeping in mind there is nothing in existence except God in the first place
This is the distinquishing marked difference between man and beast and the way in which we are created in Gods image.
DA, it is really a straight forward LOGICAL PROPOSITION that cannot be assaulted in any real fashion. if you think it can be have at it
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 66 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 10-19-2009 8:28 AM DevilsAdvocate has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 71 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 10-19-2009 4:34 PM Dawn Bertot has replied
 Message 73 by onifre, posted 10-19-2009 5:09 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 81 of 410 (531875)
10-20-2009 10:38 AM
Reply to: Message 71 by DevilsAdvocate
10-19-2009 4:34 PM


Re: Justification By Circular Definition?
DA writes:
Playing devils advocate (no pun intended), if God is everything, that means God is both good and evil. It also means the choice and morality are just an illusion. We are all pawns in God's game of chess with no willpower of our own. We think we have choice but we really do not. It is all pre-programmed into us by God and therefore morality, good and evil do not exist.
This is actually just the opposite of what I said and donsrtrated. Things can be God material without being Gods conscience. freewill in a mechanism of human exisistence and is by itself both God material and separate from his essential existence. There is no game where freewill is involved. there is no pre-programmed anything, these are your unwarrented conclusions without dealing directly with my arguments. You have simply set my position aside without considering its validity,
But if God is everything and created everything that means he created evil too. And again what is your definition of good and evil? You fall right back into the trap of Euthyphro moral dilemma's which you have failed to address.
there is no evil except that which proceeds from a mind that possess free will, that is a thought process. hence Jesus' statement:
"It is not that which goes into a man that defiles him, but that which procceds from his heart (mind) I have addressed that so called delima by the proposition I set Out, it is counterfactual to that position
What does "thoughts are both real and unreal at the same time" mean? How can something be both real and unreal at the same time? These are diametrically opposed terms. Something cannot exist and
notexist at the same time, correct. Else we fall into the paradox of Schrdinger's cat. Even thoughts either exist (are real) or do not exist (are not real).
Negative, pay attention. It is real in the sense that it proceeds from a physical verifiable mechanism, the mind, they are not real because they have no actual subtance, no reality, but can be observed, demonstrated, examined and evaluated, and are therefore independent of even Gods exsistence, because they have no actual reality in and of themselves
but the question is by what standard are you using to measure whether these thoughts and acts are good or not. If you judge them solely on what God wills or commands than the question that is begging to be answered is: How do you know what God wills or commands is good?
Because he is all that there is in reality or existence, it would follow logically that any decisions or deteminations from him would be the ultimate source of knowledge or morality. There is no other source outside of God to base a decision. While you may not like this conclusion, it conclusion is inexcapable. its the simplest of all propositions
And what is God's image, morally speaking. That is the question. How do you define God morally?
By logical absolutness.
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 71 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 10-19-2009 4:34 PM DevilsAdvocate has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 87 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 10-20-2009 5:23 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 82 of 410 (531890)
10-20-2009 11:17 AM
Reply to: Message 73 by onifre
10-19-2009 5:09 PM


Re: Justification By Circular Definition?
O writes:
You have to believe he exists first. Which means, you must believe the premise to be true before you accept anything else. That is not a logical position, that is a logical fallacy.
In this instance we have already determined that he exists, for argument sake, that is not a contention. When questioning the quality of a diety or anyone for that matter it is assumed you are granting its existence atleast temporaily, to see if the specific item can be jutified by its overall character, as described by the same source from which derive your contention. This is not a logical fallacy.
If you wish to fall back to the idea that he may not exist in the first place, then the quailty you are describing is of no consequence in the first place, in other words ther is no reason to assume the validity or invaldity of its measure, pitted against a possibility of non-existence in the first place. Such an argument would be nonsensical
Is a thought some how outside of existance? Is that what you're saying? That thoughts happen somewhere outside of existance?
Because if they don't, if they happen in existance, and if your god is "all there is in existence," then it follows that so are your thoughts a part of god as well.
Its outside of exsistence beacuse it has no SUBSTANCE in reality in and of itself in the first place. Plus you are ignoring the freewill that drives or initates the thought in the first place. god is not responsible for a thought derived from an independant mind. thats the beauty of being created in his image.
Besides existance and salvation, the thought process is the most amazing of all creations. It has a kind of reality with no reality
If it can be comprehended, evaluated and understood, then it is a part of existance, a part of reality. If god is all there is in existance, then thoughts are a part of him as well. You can't have it both ways.
another mechanism namley the mind of another is doing the evaluation of thoughts, the thoughs have no reality and are therefore independant and non-exsistent of both physical realities and Gods basic essence. God may control and know every thought from eternity but they are indepedant of his total existance because they have no actual reality. Only the mechanism and the creation of freewill can be said to be under Gods control, if he so desires, but he lets the individual choose and produce THOUGHTS that are soley the decision of the individual.
EAM

This message is a reply to:
 Message 73 by onifre, posted 10-19-2009 5:09 PM onifre has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 86 by onifre, posted 10-20-2009 3:07 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 93 of 410 (532095)
10-21-2009 9:17 AM
Reply to: Message 86 by onifre
10-20-2009 3:07 PM


Re: Justification By Circular Definition?
And while I agree, if we already established he exists, there is no fallacy. But your statement included his existence being logical as well. And that's what I objected to, because it's not a logical position. It is a belief that assumes the premise.
first let me apologize to IANO and Jaywill here, two masterful expositors, artisans of no little character and talent. Especially that last post by jaywill, that is a piece of art. if you pay no attention to my intimations please read thiers carfully and try an comprehend what is being communicated by them
To Onfrie. every position or belief assumes its premises, depending on the amount of information that can be brought to bare on its conclusions. the existence of of God certainly falls within this category., ie if God exists then it would follow that nothing could exist outsideof him, otherwise he could not truely be called God. the existence of God is not a logical contradiction and is therefore a logical demonstratable proposition. In other words nothing prevents it form being resonable or LOGICAL. Enough said I hope, this really to simple to miss.
This thread I believe was assuming his existence, because it refernced his character in the expressions of heaven and hell, which assumes his existence too
You'll have to explain how humans, who exist in reality, are having thoughts outside of existence. No offence, but that's just nonsense
Only because your not paying attention. if you dont like the expression "outside of existence", then I will limit it to nonexistent. A quality with no real susbstnace could be considered outside existence itself, hardly nonsense
Is there a thought that takes place that lacks cause or effect?
Probably not, but, since I never said this, it is not applicable here. Cause and effect have nothing to do with its properties or lack of property
Wouldn't the "substance" of the thought be how one applies it to reality and likewise how reality affected the thought?
No, your describing its effect to physical properties. there is no such thing as a SUBSTANCE of a thought it has none in the first place, it only has affect twords physical actions
By your definition, spoken words have no "substance" in reality.
Why, they are not the same as thoughts
Aren't thoughts determined by outside stimuli? If someone points a gun to you, wouldn't you start thinking what to do because of that persons actions?
It does not matter what produces a thought, the thought still has no substance in reality. besides this if someone points a gun at me I employ the two oldest forms of marshal arts, I scream like a girl and run as quickly as possible. Laugh but it works. while the assalant is recoiling in disgust from your scream, it gives you that split second to make your escape. like the smoke from an octopus
Sorry, but you have not established how the mind is independent of existence.
I didnt say the mind was independent, I said thoughts were, they are two different things
If the mind exists in reality, and god is all of existence, then it follows that the mind and god are one and the same.
Or, god could be outside of existence (not everything in existence) and the mind would then be independent of god.
So which is it? It can't be both.
neither is correct. God is existence and thoughts, not the mind, are independent of him because they have no reality . yes he created the mechanism of thought process, but freewill of the individual produces the thought, which then becomes independent of the mind
No. First, I can evaluate and comprehend my own thoughts; a kind of self analysis. I'm a part of reality, my mind is a part of reality, therefore anything that derives from it that can be comprehended is also a part of reality.
the mind yes, thoughts, no
Furthermore, god can evaluate and comprehend my own thoughts too; which as I understand it, that's exactly what he does. If he is a part of reality and can comprehend my thoughts, then they are also a part of reality.
True, but God can comprehend and HEAR your thoughts, the same as you can in your own mind. the mechanism that he created to produce thoughts is not hidden to him. thus the scripture that says, "and Jesus percieving thier thoughts", because he is and was God. this was not possible for anyother than God.
Lets take it a step further, jesus did not need in that instance need to evaluate or comprehend anything, it was known to him from eternity. god does not comprehend or evaluate points of knowledge, they are apart of him from eternity. If there were ten billion UNIVERSES, every particle of knowledge has always been known to him
Wait...can't you see the clear contradiction here?
No and i challenge you to demonstrate otherwise
If he controls it, and he is a part of existence, then the thought exists in reality.
they exist in reality because you see thier effects, they still have no substnace.
He can be in charge and choose to not to control a thought or ones thoughts and remain independent of the conclusions of that thought. His control is manifested in the responsiblity he applies to the thoughts you wish to concieve. he only asks that you contemplate (think) correctly, as relates to his absolute principles.
They come from the mind of a being that exists in reality. Thoughts don't go into another dimension and then re-appear.
You are making no sense.
Thoughts dont "GO" OR "REAPPEAR" anywhere, they have no substnace in the first place. they only have reality because your mind can produce this amazing creation, which manifests itself in CONTEMPLATION or actions. God holds us accountable for thoughts, because he has endowed us by being created in his image, THINKING
It makes perfect sense
If god controls freewill, and can control your thoughts, then there is nothing free about any of this. It is all predetermined by him.
Your making stuff up, I never said he did any of this, as a matter of fact, I said just the opposite
He created, he gave the power to think, he gave the will to choose, so he is responsible for how such tools are used. And he should not punish for using them wrongly, he should correct the functions so that they are used properly.
he did in Christ Jesus, but you are disregarding that as well.. Whos is it that is coping out?
So which is it? Because it can't be both....
Its neither as you have described it, youve misrepresented it again.
EAM

This message is a reply to:
 Message 86 by onifre, posted 10-20-2009 3:07 PM onifre has not replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 94 of 410 (532102)
10-21-2009 9:49 AM
Reply to: Message 86 by onifre
10-20-2009 3:07 PM


Re: Justification By Circular Definition?
And while I agree, if we already established he exists, there is no fallacy. But your statement included his existence being logical as well. And that's what I objected to, because it's not a logical position. It is a belief that assumes the premise.
first let me apologize to IANO and Jaywill here, two masterful expositors, artisans of no little character and talent. Especially that last post by jaywill, that is a piece of art. if you pay no attention to my intimations please read thiers carfully and try an comprehend what is being communicated by them. I hope this detour has not taken the discussion to far off track. My purpose is to emphasis the weight and responsibility involved in free moral choice in connection with the doctrines of heaven and hell.
To Onifre. every position or belief assumes its premises, depending on the amount of information that can be brought to bare on its conclusions. the existence of of God certainly falls within this category., ie if God exists then it would follow that nothing could exist outsideof him, otherwise he could not truely be called God. the existence of God is not a logical contradiction and is therefore a logical demonstratable proposition. In other words nothing prevents it form being resonable or LOGICAL. Enough said I hope, this really to simple to miss.
This thread I believe was assuming his existence, because it refernced his character in the expressions of heaven and hell, which assumes his existence too, from a common source, namely the Old and New testaments
You'll have to explain how humans, who exist in reality, are having thoughts outside of existence. No offence, but that's just nonsense
Only because, your not paying attention. if you dont like the expression "outside of existence", then I will limit it to nonexistent. A quality with no real susbstnace could be considered outside existence itself, hardly nonsense
Is there a thought that takes place that lacks cause or effect?
Probably not, but, since I never said this, it is not applicable here. Cause and effect have nothing to do with its properties or lack of property
Wouldn't the "substance" of the thought be how one applies it to reality and likewise how reality affected the thought?
No, your describing its effect to physical properties. there is no such thing as a SUBSTANCE of a thought it has none in the first place, it only has affect twords physical actions
By your definition, spoken words have no "substance" in reality.
Why, they are not the same as thoughts
Aren't thoughts determined by outside stimuli? If someone points a gun to you, wouldn't you start thinking what to do because of that persons actions?
It does not matter what produces a thought, the thought still has no substance in reality. besides this if someone points a gun at me I employ the two oldest forms of marshal arts, I scream like a girl and run as quickly as possible. Laugh but it works. while the assalant is recoiling in disgust from your scream, it gives you that split second to make your escape. like the smoke from an octopus
Sorry, but you have not established how the mind is independent of existence.
I didnt say the mind was independent, I said thoughts were, they are two different things
If the mind exists in reality, and god is all of existence, then it follows that the mind and god are one and the same.
Or, god could be outside of existence (not everything in existence) and the mind would then be independent of god.
So which is it? It can't be both.
neither is correct. God is existence and thoughts, not the mind, are independent of him because they have no reality . yes he created the mechanism of thought process, but freewill of the individual produces the thought, which then becomes independent of the mind
No. First, I can evaluate and comprehend my own thoughts; a kind of self analysis. I'm a part of reality, my mind is a part of reality, therefore anything that derives from it that can be comprehended is also a part of reality.
the mind yes, thoughts, no
Furthermore, god can evaluate and comprehend my own thoughts too; which as I understand it, that's exactly what he does. If he is a part of reality and can comprehend my thoughts, then they are also a part of reality.
True, but God can comprehend and HEAR your thoughts, the same as you can in your own mind. the mechanism that he created to produce thoughts is not hidden to him. thus the scripture that says, "and Jesus percieving thier thoughts", because he is and was God. this was not possible for anyother than God.
Lets take it a step further, jesus did not need in that instance need to evaluate or comprehend anything, it was known to him from eternity. god does not comprehend or evaluate points of knowledge, they are apart of him from eternity. If there were ten billion UNIVERSES, every particle of knowledge has always been known to him
Wait...can't you see the clear contradiction here?
No and i challenge you to demonstrate otherwise
If he controls it, and he is a part of existence, then the thought exists in reality.
they exist in reality because you see thier effects, they still have no substance.
He can be in charge and choose to not to control a thought or ones thoughts and remain independent of the conclusions of that thought. His control is manifested in the responsiblity he applies to the thoughts you wish to concieve. he only asks that you contemplate (think) correctly, as relates to his absolute principles.
They come from the mind of a being that exists in reality. Thoughts don't go into another dimension and then re-appear.
You are making no sense.
Thoughts dont "GO" OR "REAPPEAR" anywhere, they have no substnace in the first place. they only have reality because your mind can produce this amazing creation, which manifests itself in CONTEMPLATION or actions. God holds us accountable for thoughts, because he has endowed us by being created in his image, namely THINKING.
It makes perfect sense.
If god controls freewill, and can control your thoughts, then there is nothing free about any of this. It is all predetermined by him.
Your making stuff up, I never said he did any of this, as a matter of fact, I said just the opposite
He created, he gave the power to think, he gave the will to choose, so he is responsible for how such tools are used. And he should not punish for using them wrongly, he should correct the functions so that they are used properly.
he did in Christ Jesus, but you are disregarding that as well.. Whos is it that is coping out?
So which is it? Because it can't be both....
Its neither as you have described it, youve misrepresented it again.
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 86 by onifre, posted 10-20-2009 3:07 PM onifre has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 100 by onifre, posted 10-21-2009 6:39 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 97 of 410 (532145)
10-21-2009 3:36 PM
Reply to: Message 87 by DevilsAdvocate
10-20-2009 5:23 PM


Re: Justification By Circular Definition?
I am not sure what this means. What is "God material"?
Assuming he exists, his Spirit make-up, whatever that maybe, eternal in character
Again I don't understand what this means. Existance and non-existance by the very definition of
these terms are mutually exclusive and absolute. Either something exists or it does not. Something
cannot partially exist or partially not exist.
This is ofcurse the unique nature of pure thought, love, hate, anger. All of these proceed from a though
process, yet have nearly no reality, that is no substance. Think about it (no pun intended), you are
formulating ideas in your head as we speak, but the thoughts have no real existence as we know
existence, a truely amazing process. thought nearly has the property of bring and not being at the same
time
Free-will requires totally seperate and independent thought and a complete freedom to choose that
outweighs any form of deterministic causation. That is, free will hinges on the individual being able to
make decisions that are not unduly influenced by outside causes.
Undul;y influences are irrelevant to the fact that every choice is made on some evidence outside of ones
person or character. This idea that pressure makes a choice not a choice is nonsense at best. a person
has as much choice not to exercise a choice at to exercise it, this latest attempt to make unduly
influences as an excuse to excuse the ide of choice are simply silly.
The questions that need to be asked therefore are "do human's truly exhibit free will" and "does a
person's unbelief in God deserve damnation to a permenant status in hell"?
Yes, and according to God yes
No, I am just trying to figure out your reasoning of God's attributes/character and his relation with
human beings. You keep saying God is everything and I am stating that if that is so than logically this
would mean that humans and their thoughts are God as well. And if this were so, then free-will would just
be an illusion because we would merely be extentions of God's existence.
Think about it. You cant create the way God can. he can create a mechanism from his essence that has
the ability to think and make decision that while the mechanism is a part of his essence, the thought it
produces is not, even though he can KNOW it, resond to it and reward or punish it. it is reinforced and
sustanined by freewill
However, if humans are imitations of God but not actually part of God's existence so to speak than I
can see where you can argue that free-will would exist. Maybe I am wrong but I think most Christians
would agree with the latter argument. Please clarify.
Actually most christians would not agree with this idea. While everything is gods essence, not everything
is created in Gods exact image. Physical properties and animals are created by Gods power, thus by
Gods essence, but there is a sense in which man or humans are created in his image specifically, spirit,
mind and thought
Ok, does God have free-will? If so than by the above definition he is capable of doing evil as well. And
for humans than, evil as well as free-will are dependent on whether humans exist independently of God
or not.
Capable of doing evil and actually doing it are two different things,correct? As unpleasent as it may seem
to you an eternal, ominiscient, being would not be able to use anything besides himself as a standard and
why would he need to, there is nothing more than eternity an complete existence in ones self.
You asked for a logical explanation of such matters, probably from a biblical perspective. It is straight
forward and inexcapable as an explanation, unless you percieve the universe by itself as all there is, then
nothing in the scriptures matters anyway, correct? I dont pretend to know all the eternal consequences
for sin, only that as a logical proposition it is really inexcapable, if one accepts the existence of God
What do you consider as 'substance'? If you are going to throw ambiguous terms like 'substance',
'thoughts', 'real', 'not real', etc you really need to define what you are talking about. By substance do you
mean 'matter' as in tangible components of matter/energy that occupy the dimensions of spacetime the
answer i.e. atoms, molecules, etc. If so than no, thoughts are not matter or energy they are the product
of matter/energy interacting just as other behaviors such as spoken words, etc are the physical
acts/behaviors resulting from matter/energy interacting
Observable, testable, experimental, containg substance.
Can you really observe and detect a thought? It depends on how you define a thought. You can detect
the biochemical reactions in the brain while one is thinking but I am not sure if you can actually "observe"
a thought. It really depends on how you are defining a "thought". Like the term 'beauty', the term
'thought' is an abstract product that results from biochemical processes aka "thinking" in the brain.
I suspect we may be saying the same thing just using different wording but I am not sure.
Yes exacally, and you can hear its abstract property in your own mind, which makes it both real and
unreal at the same time. It is the only thing in existence with this nature
If that is the case than we have no method of judging good or bad apart from God and therefore have
to rely 100% on faith that God is good with no way to back this up or question if what God. God could
commit the worse attrocities and we would have no choice but to call it good.
Why would you need anything apart from absolute existence and absolute morality. You expressions
seem to indicate you would be looking for something else, what and why would you need anything else?
What else is there besides eternality. It seems there is no way to avoid this conclusion
what do you use as a measuring rod as to what constitues an 'ATTROCITE?
This is contrived gibberish to me. What does "logical absoluteness" mean?
Some positions can be carried no further than thier logical conclusions. Your questions concerning gods judgements and punishments, if concieved from the scriptures and put in logical fashion will involve a type of logical absolutness, so to speak. there is nothing you can offer to set aside these conclusions
EAM
Edited by AdminModulous, : Fixed quote tags

This message is a reply to:
 Message 87 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 10-20-2009 5:23 PM DevilsAdvocate has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 102 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 10-22-2009 5:34 AM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 108 of 410 (532249)
10-22-2009 9:33 AM
Reply to: Message 102 by DevilsAdvocate
10-22-2009 5:34 AM


Re: Justification By Circular Definition?
DA writes:
I think we are talking in circles here. If you are saying that thoughts are the direct product of the
biochemical process of cognitive thinking in our brain than I agree with you. Without the physiological
process of brain activity there are no thoughts. Therefore thoughts are an abstact concept resulting
from a physical process which do not exist if you are referring to existence as occupying a niche of
spacetime in which we live. In other words you do not see randomn ‘thoughts’ just floating around out
there. Therefore using this definition of existence, no, individual thoughts do not exist however the
brain exists.
Anywho let’s get back to topic.
Whoa, I think we just made history here at EVC, two opposing sides are in agreement on a point, thats
great. I was realating this to the topic simply to demonstrate that God is indepenent of ones thought as
a result of thier freewill, another amazing creation. Wow, progress is a many spendored thing.
How so? If a mentally ill or handicapped person is unduly influenced by other factors (psychological
and/or physiological), do these influences not have a role into whether someone really has free reign
over their own emotions, thoughts, and decisions? The answer of course is yes both physical and
psychological factors have a role into whether someone truly has "free-will". Otherwise there would be
even more mentally ill people in prison than there already are and their would be no mental wards in
hospitals.
The same is true with children. Depending on their age we do no judge children with the same criteria
that we judge culpable adults. Children, especially little children, do not have the life-experience or
mental capacity to have complete freedom to make correct or wise decisions. They are still learning how
to make correct decisions to the extent that they become fully responsible adults.
Whoa, even more progress here. I would agree in these instances.
Even grown and cognizant adults, though they have the freedom and responsibility to make correct
decisions, may experience time in their life where unduly influences may overwhelm their capacity to
make rational choices. It is situational dependent on whether they are held culpable by other human
beings for these decisions depending on internal and external influences. In fact this is exactly what a
court of law is trying to determine (there guilt and the extent to which they had the ability to make
rational decisions between morally acceptable and unacceptable behavior) besides the evidence for or
against the case. For example, someone who goes out drinking and than in their drunken stouper
decides to drive home in car is held culpable because they had the freedom to choose the morally
acceptable decision of not driving, not driving, finding another ride, etc before they made the decision to
take that first drink even though the alcohol now overwhelms there decision making process in their
brain.
However, if someone who is under excruciating physical and psychological anguish, pain, etc i.e. a POW,
someone being tortured, etc to the point that there decision making process in their brain is unduly
influenced or outright overridden than a court of law will take that into consideration when they
determine whether someone violates the law.
One cannot just say unduly influences are irrelevant to every situation because that is patently not true
as shown in our own judicial system.
Again more agreement, this has to be some kind of record.
In the instances you are dealing with extreme and fringe situations that could influence ones decision. God nor the courts would hold these individuals accountable probably in such extreme situations
however, if I could point out just one example where these types of situations dont exist, it would
demonstrate that freewill actually does exist.
i would point as well that making no decision in a situation where out side stimuli is present is also
making a decision. In other words, freewill can exist and is real whether a decision is made or not.
Again, when dealing with absolute rule in the form of omniscience, IF YOU BELIEVE IN IT, leaves you no
logical alternatives. One has no other means on which to base a decision, other than to IGNORE the force
of that logic and ignore the principles set out by omniscience. Indirectly atleast, it seems you have
chosen that path.
If heaven and hell are a problem for you from a LOGICAL standpoint, be happy with your decision and
move forward, like Carl Sagan
If nothing else here you seem to be remotley OBJECTIVE, which is a very good trait and I dont mean to indirectly imply others arent
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 102 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 10-22-2009 5:34 AM DevilsAdvocate has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 112 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 10-22-2009 5:39 PM Dawn Bertot has not replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 111 of 410 (532282)
10-22-2009 12:49 PM
Reply to: Message 100 by onifre
10-21-2009 6:39 PM


Re: Justification By Circular Definition?
Oni writes:
Yes, this thread does assume he exists. But in no way has this thread established his existence as
being a logical conclusion.
You said it was, and have not shown why.
This is simply to easily done, but it is not necessary here. My intimation was that morality from an
objective omniscient standpoint is a simple straight forward logical proposition, that cannot be
challenged in any serious manner, that is assuming he DA was speaking about and using the same
source of the scriptures to mount his acusations against God. My illustration about the existence of God
is the exacally the same
While I will admit that it is off-topic to the thread (and you may choose not to answer based on that),
assuming that god exist is not a logical conclusion. By the very definition of the word *belief* one is
accepting something is true purely on faith - to include faith in the scriptures that tell of his powers.
Sure belief CAN BE seperate from logical propositions and conclusions, but that does not mean a logical
proposition and conclusions cannot be demonstrated to be accurate, given enough evidence in the form
of logical information twords a conclusion. Your being to restrictive with the word belief, the dictionary
notwithstanding, my belief can be rooted in the best possible logical deductions available, which renders
the conclusion believable, whether it is proved or not.
Before we go further, please explain what "outside existence" is.
If you're saying that thoughts don't exist, then how can you have them?
Also, are you disregarding the inner workings of your brain, more so of your neurons.
In fact, lets get to the heart of your issue: What is a thought?
And your explanation should be based on objective evidence, not just, "it's an abstract thing that takes
place outside of existence."
This is really funny. Your asking me to provide you with objective evidence for something I DONT
BELIEVE HAS SUBSTANCE IN THE FIRST PLACE, how can I do that ?(laughing really hard while writing) But
we both know they are real in a sense, because we can hear them in our minds and see thier effects in
action, but the affect is not the thought itself.
I didnt say they dont exist I said they have no substance, or appear to not have substance.
Secondly, I tole you that I simplified my response to NO SUBSTANCE, verses OUTSIDE EXISTENCE, sense
no substance would be like not really existing.
Here are some scientific answers to that question, if you like, you may choose from these, or come
up with your own.
Thought:
Representative reactions towards stimuli from internal chemical reactions or external environmental
factors.
Neurons respond to stimuli, and communicate the presence of stimuli to the central nervous system,
which processes that information and sends responses to other parts of the body for action.
Any of those sound about right to describe what a thought is?
Nope, these are the processes that produce a thouhgt, look carefully at the words in the definitions. A
thought cannot be described or captures as you would a picture. if a thought has substance in reality it
should be avalibe to translated into visual stimuli. My guess is that it cant be. but what do I know Im just
a bag of hammers.
It does when I'm trying to figure out what you mean by a "thought". You have not been clear. You
have been vague in your description
Really? duh, thats the whole point, but I can hear them cant you?
If it has a cause, then your sensory functions receive the information. If it has an effect, then your
central nervous system processes the information and sends responses to other parts of the body for
action.
great, now explain to me how you hear the words in your mind. Explain the action that creates and lets
you hear them as if you were being spoken to. Youve only explained the process which leads to the
thought, not what the thought is, nor have you showed the substance of the processes end result, the
though itself
Now, can you please tell where the actual thought happens outside of this system?
I didnt say it happens outside this process, I said the thing it produces (a thought), the end result of the
process has no substance, or it seems to have none. if it does show me a thought, or simply tranfer a
thought into images. if it has substance you should be able to do this with no problem, correct? Oh
yeah thats science fiction
So, spoken words have "substance" different from thoughts? Please explain. How so?
I assumed by spoken words you mean Audible noises from the vocal cords. If you mean the word "Blue"
as spoken by a mouth, then NO, it has no substance in reality, other than a contrived definition
You have a cause which is sensed, you have an effect which is the result of your body processing
information. That's it. That's all "thoughts" are.
then explain how you hear the thoughts in your mind. If as you suggest here, that is all thoughts are, an
EFFECT processesd by your body, the body is producing something, an abstract idea that is heard and
which has no substance, yet produces cause and effect, after the chemical process is complete
Thoughts are not independent of stimuli or of your environment.
the mind produces an abstract idea, that is a result of the process, that I can hear and act upon. if they
are not independent in some sense, it should be easy enough to show the properties of the thought or
transfer them into images, somehow, correct?
Thoughts are NOT an abstract thing, they are reactions to stimuli.
Then reproduce it, show me its properties, show me the end result of the process
However, my only other point is this: Do humans have the "thoughts" in reality?
yes but it has no substance that is identifiable
Whos Ringo?
If they exist in reality, and god is all of existence, then he is our thoughts too. You can't get around
this obvious flaw.
god created freewill to regulate thouhgts. freewill and thoughts are abstract concepts with no substance,
much like your arguments, ha ha, just kidding. God does not regulate this part of his essence, even
though it is under his essence, but not his mind. absolutley no contradiction
So, god created freewill and he chose to give it to mankind. In other words, god CONTROLS who
receives "freewill".
Creating freewill and giving it is not the same as controling it
(1) If he chooses who gets freewill, then there is nothing free about it.
(2) If he is responsible for the mechanism that makes thoughts, then he is responsible for the end
product - (the thought).
Your to smart of an individual to see that neither of these explain the CONCEPT of freewill. You would do
better in trying to explain why freewill is not freewill
No.1 wrong
No.2 wrong
Wait, EMA, am I also supposed to assume the Jesus story is real too?
How many premises do I have to just accept?
This thread assumes GOD was real, I gave you that one, now Jesus too?
Why couldn't god just fix the mechanism that makes thoughts? That's my question.
- Oni
I f you are going to question the motives of the God of the Bible, Jesus whoever, then talk about the motives and behavior from the same source you derive your complaints. If you want to talk about whether he actually exists find another thread. Here it is being discussed whether Heaven and Hell can be justified from a Biblical and logical standpoint assuming he exists in the first place.
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 100 by onifre, posted 10-21-2009 6:39 PM onifre has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 113 by onifre, posted 10-22-2009 6:14 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 118 of 410 (532449)
10-23-2009 1:19 PM
Reply to: Message 113 by onifre
10-22-2009 6:14 PM


Re: Justification By Circular Definition?
Oni writes:
No I cannot audibly hear them. I have the illusion that I hear them, but I know better than to think there is an audible voice in my head. Crazy, insane people usually can't tell the difference. I don't presume you're one of them, so I can only assume you mean the "illusion" of an audible sound.
Your last post was very through and very funny, I mean that in a nice way ofcourse, I will get to it and DAs progressively today, sorry for the delay, very busy
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 113 by onifre, posted 10-22-2009 6:14 PM onifre has not replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 123 of 410 (532503)
10-23-2009 5:27 PM
Reply to: Message 113 by onifre
10-22-2009 6:14 PM


Re: Justification By Circular Definition?
ONI writes:
I'm sorry, what?! Did you say you can "hear" your thoughts? Audibly "hear" your thoughts?
I never said audibly
Do you mean to tell me you cant hear in some fashion, your thoughts. Oh that right you said it was an illusion. Hold on a minute, lets examine that thought (No pun intended)
No, no, follow it properly. Obviously the "thought" must come before the reaction, right? You think THEN you react, right? So the process that produces the "thought" is the neuron that carries the stimuli to the central nervous system since that is what happens before the body can react.
So lets follow it in action:
(1)Neurons respond to stimuli, and communicate the presence of stimuli to the central nervous system.
(2)The central nervous system processes that information and sends responses to other parts of the body for action.
So, first you receive the stimuli - (then something occurs) - followed by a reaction.
Now, if the reaction is after the thought, then the thought is before the reaction. If the thought is after the stimuli, then the stimuli is before the thought.
So, first stimuli, then thought, then reaction.
Going with that, if neurons communicate the presence of the stimuli to the central nervous system, and the central nervous system sends the information to the body for the reaction, somewhere in between that is where the "thought" takes place, does it not?
Now, if you can't pin-point anything made of any "substance" ie. has no fundamental properties, then what in fact are you talking about that takes place after the stimuli BUT before the reaction? And WHERE does it take place?
The REACTION is the end result, the "thought" happens before that BUT after the stimuli. So where does it happen? OR, could it be that that's all a thought is? Are you allowing for the possibility that you may be wrong in what you thought a thought was?
Could a "thought" simply be a reaction to stimuli dictated by the central nervous system? - If not, if there's more to it, then please explain.
I already have explained, and not explained what is not explainable I cant explain something that has no substance or obvious properties, yet is something that exists because I can hear it and react to it
Take this in the spirit it is intended in the spirit of deeeeebate and fun
Youve heard the expression, "When you cant dazzel them with brillance, baffle them with B...S..."
I think that is what is taking place here.
It is flat irrelevant where the thought takes place, before during or after, the PROCESS produces an abstract idea or concept that is notible and verifiable by my mind, heard in my head and acted upon as if it had actual substance and yet it appears to have no substance of its own, even as a part of the process.
To drive this point home, you have now admitted that what you hear in your mind is an illusion. To avoid the obvious conclusion that you are hearing something in your mind, in some manner, first you laugh at this OBVIOUS occurance, then you classify it as an illusion
Now since you are the man that always requires OBJECTIVE EVIDENCE for things, I would ask you to provide evidence that what you KNOW you are hearing, is actually an illusion and not a product of the thought process. If on the other hand it is a part of the physical process, exacally how does this illusion work? Where excally in the PROCESS does this happen, identify it for us with OBJECTIVE evidence and identify this self-proclaimed illusion
Wouldnt an illusion in this instance be something that is obvious yet with no apparent substance
Illusion or not, you have now demonstrated my point that an idea (thought) is without any substance as we know substance and it certainly appears to be
How can what you are hearing (and I never said audibly) in your mind be an illusion and still apart of the very complicated chemical process. So is it an illusion or not and how specifically does this illusion occur?
I think you have your work cut in trying to explain HOW, rhis ILLUSION takes place. Now remember it wont be enough to repeat the chemical process as you have,to which I pretty much agree, show me how, where, why when and what this illusion is or is not.
Can you really show me the properties of an ABSTRACT IDEA, this should be interesting.
The REACTION is the end result, the "thought" happens before that BUT after the stimuli. So where does it happen? OR, could it be that that's all a thought is? Are you allowing for the possibility that you may be wrong in what you thought a thought was?
I THOUGHT about it and , not at all, am I wrong, because you havent explained the properties of an abstract idea yet, youve just said they were an illusion, which i believe is an abstract idea, which by the way, I can hear in my mind.
Didnt you learn anything from Bruce Almighty, just to many prayers (thoughts)to handle at once
Could a "thought" simply be a reaction to stimuli dictated by the central nervous system? - If not, if there's more to it, then please explain.
Thats the point ONI, I cant explain it or deduce it, or analyze it, but its there nonetheless. Now if you can just explain this "illusion", with no real substance, we can close the case on this mnystery
No I cannot audibly hear them. I have the illusion that I hear them, but I know better than to think there is an audible voice in my head. Crazy, insane people usually can't tell the difference. I don't presume you're one of them, so I can only assume you mean the "illusion" of an audible sound.
Close the case and solve the mystery for us Yoda
I don't. And I hope for your sake you don't think you do either.
Your not being objective for me or your readers. hey everybody else, reading these posts, please raise your hand if you dont hear your thoughts in some fashion we dont understand
Fair enough. I re-read the OP and it seems it's refering to only the "Christian" definition of god, I wasn't aware that it was specific. Which I guess that means that Jesus is both the son of god and somehow god too ... so there are 2 gods?
Sorry I never understood that - not a Christian myself.
I love discussing this one more than the thought one. Just keep in mind that God is all there is in existence, that is, everything is God material or God substance, except an absract thought or concept, which is a result of substance, with no substance, yet a reality of its own.
Heavy dude
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 113 by onifre, posted 10-22-2009 6:14 PM onifre has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 126 by onifre, posted 10-23-2009 7:10 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 134 of 410 (532582)
10-24-2009 11:37 AM
Reply to: Message 132 by onifre
10-24-2009 5:43 AM


Re: Justification By Circular Definition?
Jaywill writes
I think you can loosen up a little on the word "hear".
Oni writes:
No, sorry, Jaywill, I don't think I can. Not in the context that it's being used.
Working on a response to your last post, but Im having a hard time HEARING what you are saying,since its not audible, its only in written, computerized words. Stop it EAM
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 132 by onifre, posted 10-24-2009 5:43 AM onifre has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 135 by onifre, posted 10-24-2009 12:18 PM Dawn Bertot has not replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 137 of 410 (532589)
10-24-2009 12:53 PM
Reply to: Message 126 by onifre
10-23-2009 7:10 PM


Re: Justification By Circular Definition?
Please explain what you mean by "no substance."
Son let me explain something to you that is fundamental to debate. I am claiming it has no substance, it
would therefore be a nonsensical idea to show you what that substance may be, since I dont believe it
has substance, yet has existence of some type. Now you can refer to it as a physical process or the
hearing of it as an ILLUSION if you wish, but you would be obligated to provide OBJECTIVE EVIDENCE to
this contention.
Now I mean by substance anything , verifiable from a touch and see experience, something that can be
tested in a testable way. I cant believe you dont know what I mean by substance. If I am wrong show me a thought or why what I am hearing is an illusion
EAM writes:
Do you mean to tell me you cant hear in some fashion, your thoughts.
Oni writes:
No I don't, at all. Furthermore, there is no "some other fashion of hearing." You hear
audibly, and that's it, there is no other way to "hear".
So if you are saying you are hearing your thoughts, (which you just implied)but it is not audible, how is
this happening, where is it and what is it. Identify the part of the process without telling me it is an
illusion. If it is an illusion how does it work, to produce an abstract idea and identify that part in the
PROCESS for me. Dont just keep telling me its there.You have worked yourself into a position you know is
immposible
If there is more to the process then please explain. If you agree with the stimuli-thought-reaction
process then say you agree with it.
I do agree that it is apart of the process, but there must be something more in an abstract form. Now
watch this, if Im wrong, and its only a physical process, exlusively, you should be able to PINPOINT the
THOUGHT ITSELF and explain, why and where, when you HEAR IT, it is only an illusion, where in the
process does the illusion take place and what is the, ILLUSIONARY EXACT POINT and how does it happen.
Please explain Yoda, this should be no problem since its all a physical process.
But please don't evade the question.
It is completely relevant and I'd like for you to answer it.
I did
You say it has no "substance," I can only assume that means it's not made of any fundamental
properties (and I have to assume that because you didn't answer it). If it has no substance, but is the
effect of stimuli and the cause of an action, then it is somewhere doing something. I'd like for you to tell
me what that is.
My simple friend, if I knew this there would be no mystery or question on my part. But to answer your
question directly, its called an ABSTRACT THOUGHT. Again if I am wrong show it to me in your elaborate
explanations
Or, as I suspect, you can tell me you have no clue what you're talking about and were talking out of
your ass.
I'll accept either one
Weeeeell, I never......
No I didn't classify it as an illusion. If you're having trouble comprehending the subject we are
discussing we can stop here.
But I'll try once again. I don't hear an audible voice, I have the illusion of a voice in my head, we all do.
Everyone thinks there's a voice in there head, but we know better.
The ONLY way you can "hear" something is by an audibe sound (I refer you back to the definition of hear
that I provide above). If you are using "hear" to mean something OTHER THAN an audible sound, then
you are misusing the word. And I can't follow a debate like that.
Does this illusion of hearing happen as a result of the physical process, if it does could you please
identify it in the process for me, along with the abstract thought If you didnt mean it was an illusion, as a
part of the process, what did you mean, where does the illusion take PLACE?
I suspect you cant follow the debate because you are making statements you cant support, but hey we
will overlook that if you are willing to move forward. Did You HEAR me audibly, just then?
If it happens after the stimuli BUT before the reaction, then when, where, how does the thought
manifest?
ThIs would be your responsibility not mine, Ive already told you I dont know what it is or how it works, II can only tellyou that it is there and I can hear it and respond to it. If it is not something else, PINPOINT IT for me , show it to me from your very scientific methodology, Ill wait as long as you need me to.
We all know thoughts exist, we just dont know how or what they are exacally. God evaluates us from them and holds us accountable for them. it is an unbelievable process
"the word of God is quick powerful and sharper than a two-edged sword......"." and is a decerner of the THOUGHTS and INTENTS of the Heart (mind} Hebrews
EAM

This message is a reply to:
 Message 126 by onifre, posted 10-23-2009 7:10 PM onifre has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 138 by DevilsAdvocate, posted 10-24-2009 1:19 PM Dawn Bertot has not replied
 Message 139 by onifre, posted 10-24-2009 2:43 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 110 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 153 of 410 (532658)
10-25-2009 10:31 AM
Reply to: Message 139 by onifre
10-24-2009 2:43 PM


Re: last dance
ONI writes:
I didn't ask you that, I asked you to define what you mean by "no substance." You evaded it again...
I did difine it and you totally ignored my response. Ill try again. Something that can't be verified, tested, evaluated, measured, from a physical standpoint., ie a conncept, an imagination, contemplation or a thought. How many times do I need to repeat myself?
Now watch this. In an effort to get tyou to to try and explain what youare hearing in your mind, you said, you dont hear it audibly, you have the ILLUSION of hearing it. When pressed to explain what you meant by illusion, you avoided answering the question entirley. Tell everybody, Mr Peabody, what the illusion consists of.
Now watch this, if its an illusion and not a a physical reality, its an abstract idea seprate from the process. if the illusion is a part of the physical process, ITS NOT AN ILLUSION AT ALL, is it? explain this illusion to us please. Or are you now going to retract your previous statement of it being the illusion of hearing? Ill let you off the hook ifyou need off.
Presently you have failed to demonstrate where in the process the absrtact idea takes place and where the illusion takes place. heck you have even failed to explain the term ILLUSION, in connection with the HEARING of thoughts. it seems you are falling behind quickly
The question isn't if I know what "substance" is. Sure, I do. But you said it had NO substance, and I'd like you to be specific as to what you mean by that.
The lack of substance. Question?. Does an abstract idea have substance? Ill throw it right back at you. You clearly believe it does and that it is part of the PROCESS, so to speak. Show me the part of the process that consitutes the SUBSTANCE of the abstract idea. This should be no problem for you since you know and can identify all of the physical process and are sure that it is all only physical in nature.
Of what type?
Of no type that we are aware of.
There must be? Why?
All the evidence shows that there isn't. That there isn't a place in the brain where multiple "thoughts" hang out. All the evidence points to thoughts being the reaction to stimuli.
How could something with no substance HANG OUT. that means it would have to HANG OUT in a physical space, it cant because its an ABSTRACTION, no reality of substance. Now I believe you are starting to see the mystry that is involved.
We can avoid all of this by you simply TECHNICALLY explaing how you are hearing your thoughts. or you can explain why the illusion of hearing your thoughts,is not a part of the physical process, or explain where in the process this ILLUSION takes place, if its a part of the physical process.
Question? Is the illusion of hearing your thoughts a physical reality or an abstract idea
YOU have claimed it's some abstract 'thing" but when pressed to define it and/or explain what you mean, you just repeat "It's an abstract thought" over and over.
No one in science claims "thoughts" are an abstract thing. If you're making this claim then please defend your position with a clear explanation as to what you mean.
With your frustration here, you are begining to see that which is involved in the word ABSTRACT AND ABSTRACT IDEA. A clear definition of the word abstract is ABSTRACT, existing with no substance. I dont know anyone that could explain the word abstract and define it with any physical reality, do you?, that the point.
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again, if you are so sure it is all a physical reality, simply point me to the place in the process where this takes place, pinpoint it for me, OK? if thoughts are not an abstract thing, what is it that you are hearing in your mind and where in the physical process is this illusion of hearing taking place?
You see, even wiki knows what they are. It's no mystery. It's not some abstract thing. It's the reaction to stimuli. It involves chemicals and outside factors. It's not an "unbelieveable process" at all. If you would have taken the time out to try to understand this, you would already know that.
And - due to our thoughts simply being chemical reactions to stimuli, god is our thoughts and he is responsible for them. As I stated when we began this debate.
If you'd like to add anything else I'm game to continue, but if not, then I think my point has been made and you have been shown where you are wrong.
HARDLY, since you have failed to answer any of the question I have put forward to you, ie, the ones above. You have failed to show where in the process where any this takes place. You have totally avoided answering, what it is that you are hearing in your mind and where that takes place in the process. You have failed to explain what "the illusion of hearing thoughts", IS OR HOW THIS WORKS.
Now get on these questions ONI, dont hold the audience up
yes its the reaction to stimuli, but its the reaction that makes it a mystery, and somthing abstract.
Since you havent identified the part of the process that constitues the thought itself, it would follow, that the actual thought is separate from the process and a result of the process, abstract in character and nature.
since you havent explained how it is and what it is you are hearing, it would follow that maybe there is something more involved here.
Since you havent explained what you mean by the illusion of hearing or how this works, or whether it (illusion) is apart of the process, or if itself is an abstraction, it would follow that you have IN NO WAY DEMONSTRATED YOUR CASE.
Since thoughts are an abstraction,they are not a part of God, they have no substance, Spirit or otherwise.
This coupled with the fact of freewill repudiates your position about God being responsible for our thoughts.
There is good reason you are game to continue, you havent demonstrated anything, in either of these instances.
lets start with something simple. please explain what the Illusion of hearing your thoughts means
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 139 by onifre, posted 10-24-2009 2:43 PM onifre has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 159 by onifre, posted 10-26-2009 1:22 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
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