Peg writes:
if God has appeared in human form, the OT should contain an account of it.
If you believe that he appeard as Jesus, then why has he not appeard to Isreal in the form of a man? You wont find anywhere in the OT where he has done so.
Frankly, the Old Testament is a bit schizophrenic about the whole issue. For instance:
Exodus 33:20 - "And he said, Thou canst not see my face: for there shall no man see me, and live."
Compared to:
Exodus 33:11 - "And the LORD spake unto Moses face to face, as a man speaketh unto his friend. And he turned again into the camp: but his servant Joshua, the son of Nun, a young man, departed not out of the tabernacle."
These are two verses within the same chapter which directly contradict each other on the subject of God appearing to people. In fact God is directly telling Moses that he cannot see his face, despite the earlier passage saying that they spoke face-to-face.
Whatever the eventual conclusion of what is going on in that scene, the point is clear that biblical support for any interpretation is going to be extremely difficult to take seriously no matter how clear the language. Was God in human form? He has a face and loins "ever upward" and "ever downward" (Ezekiel 1:27) which have been seen, but also has not and cannot ever be seen (1 Timothy 6:16).
As with most of the Bible, pick an interpretation that pleases you.