On the other hand, if the stories have the same origin, then you would expect to find some disturbing similarities between the two.
But how would this be evidence of the
biblical record as being historically accurate? If, say, the Nez Perce flood myth and the Biblical flood myth are similiar isn't this just as much evidence for the accuracy of the Nez Perce myth as the Biblical myth? Also, how does having a common origin make that origin real? Can't two similar myths originate from a common myth?