I never get these. You seem to be claiming that where n is infinite and x is finite, that n/x, for example one half of infinity, would somehow be finite. This isn't right, it's roughly equivalent to claiming that where o is nil and x is finite, that xo, for example twice zero, is somehow nonzero. It isn't, it won't be.
In short, in order for something that began an infinite amount of time ago, to have to have also ended an infinite amount of time ago, it would have to be finite. As long as it's infinite, it may begin an infinite amount of time ago, and end now, and it will be a distinct fraction of an infinity, which is itself by nature also infinite.
Infinity isn't a single number, it's a very large class of numbers, a much larger class than for example the set of real numbers, which is itself infinite.
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