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Author | Topic: Can a valid, supportable reason be offered for deconversion | |||||||||||||||||||
jar Member (Idle past 99 days) Posts: 34140 From: Texas!! Joined: |
And, of course, Isaiah 50 is NOT talking about Jesus but is just another example of taking things out of context.
Here is the passage in context.
quote: As in other such examples of quote mined misrepresentation, this passage from Isaiah is NOT talking about Jesus but rather the then current state of Israel and the fact that God allowed Israel to be conquered. Take your allegations and assertions over to the thread where they might actually be on topic, here they simply show that you really don't have a clue what is in the Bible or even what prophecy is about. But if it was prophecy about Jesus, then the evidence is that it is a failed prophecy since there is no evidence that such an event even happened. Edited by jar, : left the t offn event Anyone so limited that they can only spell a word one way is severely handicapped!
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dwise1 Member Posts: 6077 Joined: Member Rating: 7.3 |
This also a good indication of inspiration, if indeed the writer never actually heard the prophet state it, it was given to him by inspiration IOW, making shit up. SOP for your religion. Dan Barker, former fundamentalist preacher, noticed the same thing. Preachers who didn't know what they were talking about would get up before a congregation and make shit up and the congregation would just eat it all up because "the Spirit was talking through him." Which would include what the Gospel writers did. Knowing some Scripture (meaning OT), they picked out what could serve as prophesies and then make up the fulfillment of those prophesies. And you eat it all up because "the Spirit was talking through them."
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Theodoric Member Posts: 9489 From: Northwest, WI, USA Joined: Member Rating: 6.3 |
Which church?
Facts don't lie or have an agenda. Facts are just facts
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jar Member (Idle past 99 days) Posts: 34140 From: Texas!! Joined: |
It would be the catholic (as in universal) church.
Anyone so limited that they can only spell a word one way is severely handicapped!
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Theodoric Member Posts: 9489 From: Northwest, WI, USA Joined: Member Rating: 6.3 |
they claim inspiration from the Holy Spirit Please state the line that claims this. Also, what about other religious tracts that claim this and are not in the Canon? Why are the ones in your bible true and others not? Do you understand the process that resulted in your bible? Facts don't lie or have an agenda. Facts are just facts
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Theodoric Member Posts: 9489 From: Northwest, WI, USA Joined: Member Rating: 6.3 |
So does this catholic(universal) church exist?
Facts don't lie or have an agenda. Facts are just facts
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jar Member (Idle past 99 days) Posts: 34140 From: Texas!! Joined: |
Certainly. The term simply means universal and for the most part, describes any and all of the recognized Christian sects.
But of course, Dawn's assertion that that was what was being referenced is total nonsense. Anyone so limited that they can only spell a word one way is severely handicapped!
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arachnophilia Member (Idle past 1604 days) Posts: 9069 From: god's waiting room Joined: |
Dawn Bertot writes: Well that is not the point i was making. My point was, do you have information better than the inspired Apostles and Nt writers that cite passages of the OT to relay them as a fulfillment of said prophecies? yes. that information can be found in the old testament, generally in the verse surrounding the prophecy the NT authors are misrepresenting.
secondly, if I am not mistaken, you dont even believe the writers of the OT were inspired, do you? my beliefs are not the topic of debate. the question is why should (you or) anyone "deconvert". the fact that the NT claims of "fulfilled prophecy" do not match the actual OT prophecies is a fairly good reason.
No, you've simply been presented with an argument, for which you will not attempt an answer. Here it is again. Please explain why I should not accept the NT writers conclusions and estimations about the fulfillment of the prophecies they cite as relating to and the fulfillment of said prophecies no. really. there's a whole thread devoted to this. there have been whole threads in the past. we once spent over 300 posts discussing one particular prophecy alone. my arguments and explanations can be found in the appropriate thread. in detail. you simply refuse to go look.
As such, I have a simple choice. I can believe them or I can believe you. it's not about believing me. it's about understanding the old testament.
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arachnophilia Member (Idle past 1604 days) Posts: 9069 From: god's waiting room Joined: |
Dawn Bertot writes: fun fact: none of the gospels are written in first person. the only books that use first person are the epistles. fun fact: they claim inspiration from the Holy Spirit fun fact: i can do that too. and so can you. and so can anyone. which is why the torah provides a way to determine inspiration.
first the dates you cite are from liberal scholars (apologists). i think you had better look up what "apologist" means. and "liberal".
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Taq Member Posts: 10304 Joined: Member Rating: 7.3 |
Please explain why I should not accept the NT writers conclusions and estimations about the fulfillment of the prophecies they cite as relating to and the fulfillment of said prophecies The process of deconversion begins when you ask why you should accept them to begin with. How did you determine that the NT authors were inspired? Just because they say so? If it is that simple: Taq is inspired by the Holy Ghost because Taq says so. There, I am now an inspired author. With that said, Jesus was not the Messiah. Your deconversion can now commence. Edited by Taq, : No reason given.
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arachnophilia Member (Idle past 1604 days) Posts: 9069 From: god's waiting room Joined: |
Dawn Bertot writes: what i posted was not an argument, but a summary of my past experiences. mostly on this very board, i might add. about 6 years ago, i gave up arguing against creationism with science, and instead, would reply to every post with information from the bible. And how did this work for you? very well, actually.
As I have contiually demonstrated and pointed out, they are not MY opinions, they are the NT writers inspired opinions. It may be possible that like the Jews of old, you were looking for a physical king, when a spiritual one was underconsideration by God You keep claiming I am missing something textually and now youve called it the finer points of the Prophets. Perhaps you could explain what it is that I am missing sure. there is a whole thread devoted to that subject right now.
quote: I specifically asked you not to give me another, "Bird in the hand" explanation and you did it anyway perhaps you would prefer?
quote: "bird in the hand explanation" is not the word you're looking for, here. that word would be "proverb".
Were the people in this class inspired writers, did they have the inspired gift of decernment (1 Cor 12)? no, but they could read. something you evidently cannot do. and if we would have to be inspired by the holy spirit to even read the bible and understand its message, well -- what's the point of the bible, exactly?
Of course he did bring peace to the entire world and rules at its king, as it is stated "all authority has been given him in heaven and earth" iraq and afghanistan disagree with you. as does israel. remember israel?
Like the Jews of old , you are looking for what God never intended so you think the authors of the OT were not inspired, when they described the earthly rule of the messiah?
So Iam forced to a conclusion, I can believe this guy Arch, which can give no valid reason for his conlcusion, about what is intended in Zech, just his opinion, not to mention, Arch being uninspired don't believe me. believe zechariah. his words are plainly there for you to see on paper. why you can't comprehend them in plain, literal english i do not know.
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arachnophilia Member (Idle past 1604 days) Posts: 9069 From: god's waiting room Joined: |
Dawn Bertot writes: Since you did not provide a passage, I cannot respond to it. there are several passages in the appropriate thread. you may respond there.
Secondly, if inspiration in the OT was behind the prophecies, then only inspiration could explain Gods interpretations of those prophecies, correct? incorrect. prophecy was meant as a message to the common folk, given by god through the mouths of the prophets. if your position were correct, everyone would have needed "inspiration" to understand the prophet -- and thus there would be no need for a prophet.
There is no reason to assume the writers in the OT were inspired and the ones in the Nt were not, unless you can provide a reason sure. several have been provided in the prophecy thread.
So only God could explain what he actually meant. This he did by his Son.. Many times he stated, that "the law and the Prophets testify of me" and any person can claim such a thing. the proof is in the pudding.
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arachnophilia Member (Idle past 1604 days) Posts: 9069 From: god's waiting room Joined: |
jar writes: As in other such examples of quote mined misrepresentation, this passage from Isaiah is NOT talking about Jesus but rather the then current state of Israel and the fact that God allowed Israel to be conquered. since dawn likely doesn't know this particular bit of history, it's worth spelling out here. after solomon died, there was a dispute over the unified kingdom of israel. his son rehoboam ruled the southern kingdom of judah from jerusalem, and his other son jeroboam ruled the northern kingdom of israel. pretty much everything in the bible was written in judah. when the prophets refer to "israel" they are frequently refering to the northern kingdom, which was conquered by assyria around the time of the prophets. this is often in contrast to judah, as here in isaiah 50 (israel =bad, judah = good). sometimes they also refer to israel, meaning all 12 tribes, or the sons jacob -- all the hebrew peoples. but this is not one of those times. i find that people of the fundamentalist persuasion -- and those that have not read the books of kings -- frequently conflate israel and judah in prophecy, because they simply do not understand the difference. this difference would have been huge to the authors at the time, as israel was occasionally waging brutal war against them, and they were generally viewed as an evil and idolatrous nation.
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jar Member (Idle past 99 days) Posts: 34140 From: Texas!! Joined: |
It's important to understand that they are two separate nations and very often at war with one another and that even during the brief life of the United Kingdom it was far more like England and Scotland under James I and VI, two nations with a common monarch.
Edited by jar, : fix subtitle Anyone so limited that they can only spell a word one way is severely handicapped!
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Theodoric Member Posts: 9489 From: Northwest, WI, USA Joined: Member Rating: 6.3 |
Certainly. The term simply means universal and for the most part, describes any and all of the recognized Christian sects. This seems like a ridiculous statement, not quite as ridiculous as Dawns but still it seems rather ridiculous. Just because a sect, any sect, makes some sort of whatever vague reference to Jesus Christ, it is part of some universal church? Catholic or universal signifies some sort of commonality. I do not see how the term catholic can be used to encompass all of the christian sects. I think Dawn believes that "church" is the sect he follows and that other christian sects that disagree with his sect are not part of the "church". That is what I am trying to find out from Dawn. Facts don't lie or have an agenda. Facts are just facts
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