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Author Topic:   Existence
arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1371 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 40 of 1229 (614645)
05-05-2011 3:12 PM
Reply to: Message 39 by Rahvin
05-05-2011 2:50 PM


Re: Cause
Rahvin writes:
ICANT's position is that the Bible is inerrant. The rest is apologetic window dressing.
i don't think that's accurate.
for instance, he seems to hold that the masoretic text (the basis for damned near every translation ever) is the work of some kind of evil jewish conspiracy to change what the text says with vowels. and that professional translators and hebrew scholars are making up grammatical usage to make hebrew more like english -- also, effectively making every translation inaccurate.
He just throws around synonymous translations of Biblical passages ...
that, however, is accurate. he doesn't know the first thing about translation. or hebrew. or probably greek, either. he doesn't understand why his "translations" show about as much comprehension as those of ronald pegg, who found CD-ROMs and time machines in the bible by replacing words with synonyms and ignoring grammar and usage.

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This message is a reply to:
 Message 39 by Rahvin, posted 05-05-2011 2:50 PM Rahvin has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 41 by Rahvin, posted 05-05-2011 4:47 PM arachnophilia has replied

arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1371 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 43 of 1229 (614657)
05-05-2011 5:01 PM
Reply to: Message 41 by Rahvin
05-05-2011 4:47 PM


Re: Cause
Rahvin writes:
He's stuck. He can't change his mind. He can't learn. He can't improve.
you don't have to tell me. have you read my "basic reading of genesis 1:1" thread?
there's a reason he began this thread with the statement that:
quote:
For this thread Genesis 1:1, "In the beginning God created the Heavens and the Earth". is to be accepted as a declarative statement of completed action.
...and that's because he knows full well that this is actually a topic of debate, and that the scholarly consensus is that it says no such thing. rather, professional translators, and hebrew professors, and pretty much anyone who speaks hebrew, all seem to agree that it should be a dependent clause that describes the rest of the chapter. he knows that he can't demonstrate this, but he wants to talk about his particular ideology, not the bible. so he just assumes his conclusions.
of course, he's accused me of the same thing. but an astute reader of that thread will note that my position actually changed during its course.

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arachnophilia
Member (Idle past 1371 days)
Posts: 9069
From: god's waiting room
Joined: 05-21-2004


Message 44 of 1229 (614659)
05-05-2011 5:03 PM
Reply to: Message 42 by PaulK
05-05-2011 4:57 PM


Re: Cause
PaulK writes:
You must remember that ICANT's method of understanding the Bible is to insist that it says what he thinks it says and ignore every objection - by his own admission. (Or at least he was doing that and insisting that he was "only trying to understand the Bible").
It's not the bible that is inerrant, it's his interpretation, even if it isn't even a vlid interpretation. But that's what so-called "Biblical inerrantists" are like. Pretty much all of them.
this was most obvious when he insisted that the authors of the bible wrote at about the level of elementary schoolers -- in reality, he was mixing up his own reading comprehension level with that of how the text was actually written. he thought that because he didn't understand certain facets of grammar, the people who wrote the text must not have used those features.
Edited by arachnophilia, : No reason given.

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