I find it kind of strange Mikethewiz used some kind of weird absolute version of moral relativism in his answers to why slavery is in the bible. If God exists, he can't use it moral relatvism, if he does, he assumes no absolute morality created by God exists,and by extension, God as he knows him doesn't exist. The topic about, that in a literalist view, God's absolute morality allowed for this grave sin, while avoiding it would have been in His power for sure, since he liberated them from Egypt, led them through the desert, and later on, let's the country flourish and delay like a Yo-Yo, at will, and yet slavery cannot be avoided, or taught as the grave evil it is?
I know he is just trying to make a point by using aburdism, but his mixing of strawman moral relativism to, in his mind, logically disarm atheists, and his own justifications of slavery in God's absolute morality at the same time, make for a very incoherent argument. I object to mixing those approaches when it just happens to his argument's advantage. You can't have both ways.
If you happens to return to the topic Mike, just use one consistently. Not to mention most normal secularists don't use this kind of moral relativism, and all Christians also don't, so there's no point in using it.