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Author Topic:   Did the coming of Jesus render the Law of the old testament null and void
Posts: 16475
From: frozen wasteland
Joined: 03-23-2005
Member Rating: 2.6

Message 6 of 80 (665724)
06-16-2012 12:34 PM
Reply to: Message 1 by LexM1985
06-16-2012 7:48 AM

LexM1985 writes:

Also, I believe that Psalm 19 asserts that Mosaic law is perfect.

Psalm 19:7 says that the "law of the Lord" is perfect. There's God's law, there's the Mosaic law, there's Levitical law, there's Jewish law.... It's a jurisdictional nightmare. Jesus may have been deliberately ambiguous when He said "the Law", or He might have meant something like what Paul said in Romans 2:
14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:

15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness...

This message is a reply to:
 Message 1 by LexM1985, posted 06-16-2012 7:48 AM LexM1985 has not yet responded

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