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Author | Topic: Homosexuality and Natural Selection. | |||||||||||||||||||||||
Fosdick  Suspended Member (Idle past 5755 days) Posts: 1793 From: Upper Slobovia Joined: |
nemesis_juggernaut asks astutely 'Why does homosexuality exist at all'?
Yes, but finding ways around nature doesn't help the evolutionary argument for why homosexuality exists at all. Yes, you could be artificially inseminated, you could adopt, you could have sex with a member of the opposite sex, but I'm talking about nature. Why would such a thing be selected for. Why would nature subvert itself? That makes no sense to me.
"Why would nature subvert itself?" is a good question. One would think that natural selection would be quite unfriendly to homosexuality. This begs for clarity in the definition of NS. After a long debate following Message 1 the functional definition of natural selection per E.O. Wilson (Sociobiology, 2000, p. 589) still stands firm:
quote: At least one conclusion about natural selection and homosexuality seems obvious: gay/lesbian sex must contribute to the differential reproductive success amongst the individuals of a population. Certainly, if all individuals of a population practiced only gay/lesbian sex, then that population would be wiped out by natural selection in its first generation. Therefore, a population’s evenness of reproductive success seems necessarily altered by homosexuality. And yet homosexuality manages to evade natural selection. It would seem to me that if natural selection is “the basic mechanism proposed by Charles Darwin . as the main guiding force in evolution” then homosexuality would not survive in any population. But it does, either by way of personal choice or genetic predisposition. How does it evade natural selection? ”HM
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Fosdick  Suspended Member (Idle past 5755 days) Posts: 1793 From: Upper Slobovia Joined: |
Chiro wrote:
Good point, which scores for the side that says homosexuality is not genetic. But it would seem to associate with natural selection nevertheless, given the accepted definition of it. There are several possible reasons. One among several is that perhaps homosexual/heterosexual behavior isn't heritable. ”HM
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Fosdick  Suspended Member (Idle past 5755 days) Posts: 1793 From: Upper Slobovia Joined: |
Jazzns wrote:
Also a good point. Genetic altruism is not unknown. Homosexuality also may be a passive trait, in and of itself, and yet it may actually help other genes in a genome to survive. Over-population control has been mentioned up-thread as another service possibly provided by homosexuality. A genetic predisposition for homosexuality may also come along for the ride with genes that have other effects. It has been mentioned before that some studies were done that showed a correlation between homosexual men and increased fundicity in their sisters. Theoretically then, it is possible for a homosexual man to have no offspring yet the 'gay gene' would be perpetuated by his sister. One thing I have not yet seen adressed, though, is whether or not STDs from same-sex contact ever move through non-human populations. I know of no such epidemics occurring amongst bonobos or baboons, for example. ”HM
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Fosdick  Suspended Member (Idle past 5755 days) Posts: 1793 From: Upper Slobovia Joined: |
It's only genetic altruism if you have a viewpoint problem. If you think about the gene as a gene for fecundity in females, but has the side effect of influencing homosexual behavior in males, then I'm not sure how it's altruistic. I was fascinated by Mod's description of intragenomic conflict in the other thread. Could this be an extended example? Just speculating. I went back to that thread but I could not find that post of Mod's you mention. Do you remember where it was? Maybe he's looking in and will explain "intragenomic conflict" for us. On the other hand, regarding my "viewpoint problem," it remains entirely possible that gays are gay by choice, not by "nature," let us say. If that's true then any scientist will have a "viewoint problem"...unless their choice is genetically predisposed. ”HM
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Fosdick  Suspended Member (Idle past 5755 days) Posts: 1793 From: Upper Slobovia Joined: |
But it's nonetheless established that there's a correlation between male homosexuality and female sibling fecundity. A genetic influence is the simplest explanation.
Why couldn't nurture instead of nature explain that? Certain configurations of influential female sibling personalities might expain how the otherwise straight boy turns gay. Matt Ridley writes in Genome (1999, p. 217) about nature v. nurture in sexual role playing:
quote: ”HM
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Fosdick  Suspended Member (Idle past 5755 days) Posts: 1793 From: Upper Slobovia Joined: |
One important point to bear in mind with the Camperio-Ciani et al. study previously cited (2004) is that in many ways the female fecundity hypothesis in concert with the observation that more older male siblings increases the likelihood of a child being homosexual suggests that homesexuality is partly an epiphenomenon of the increased female fecundity rather than the result of any gene causing homosexuality in the actual bearer.
I tend to agree. But in the absence of a genetic explanation for homosexuality, the role of person choice seems to become more important. Is it, then, mostly a psychological issue? No genes involved at all? Are there any good biological principles, other than genetic ones, that can explain such a choice favoring homosexuality? The "epiphenomenon" approach might do the job, but I don't yet know the principles it relies on. I'm not sure I trust the psychologists with this one. ”HM
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Fosdick  Suspended Member (Idle past 5755 days) Posts: 1793 From: Upper Slobovia Joined: |
But in the absence of a genetic explanation for homosexuality,
But the above quote just gave a reasonable genetic explanation. Why would you ignore that? ...an epiphenomenon of the increased female fecundity rather than the result of any gene causing homosexuality in the actual bearer.
It was the "actual bearer" part that interested me.
Like most things about us it is undoubtably complex but all the studies I've read suggest a genetic or uterine enviroment connection. Do you have any that suggest otherwise?
Not even a clue to a suggestion, because, dispite the ambiguities I see in the studies mention by WP, I don't know how an "uterine environment connection" can NOT be a genetically managed phenomenon. Yes, WK can go to epiphenomena is he want to, but I don't want to go there until I understand just the phenomenon part, if there realy is any. ”HM
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Fosdick  Suspended Member (Idle past 5755 days) Posts: 1793 From: Upper Slobovia Joined: |
Do you at all remember our conversation on this just a couple or so months ago...
Oh, sure, I remember that. How could I forget it?
...where I referenced a research that led to a "cure" of animal homosexuality? Surely, if the trait can be cured via experimental procedures then wouldn't this be an indication of it being more than just a personal choice?
I would have to agree with you. And I suppose, then, that you would have to agree with this: When they invent a "cure" for homosexuality in humans, being homosexual certainly will be a matter of choice. ”HM
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