Typical bunch of evo myths if you ask me. None of the references or the participants on the thread has offered evidence for these supposed mutations that have made lactose tolerance possible, or for the time period in which this supposedly happened in certain parts of the world. It's asserted and believed and that's it.
Are these mutations the addition of specific alleles for a specific gene or exactly what are they? And how do you know they are mutations?
I would of course have my own usual guess. The ability to digest milk would have to have been built in to the human genome because milk is such a nutritious food.
Abraham served it to his guests about 4000 years ago:
Gen 18:8 And he took butter, and milk, and the calf which he had dressed, and set it before them; and he stood by them under the tree, and they did eat.
And it's mentioned throughout the Bible, especially in the phrase "land of milk and honey" denoting a richly fertile land.
Therefore rather than the ability to digest it having been acquired here and there, I'd suppose it was lost here and there instead, just as I would suppose that we've lost all kinds of physical strengths we were originally endowed with, such as a functioning appendix, and what we've acquired, instead of any beneficial abilities, is our enormous collection of genetic diseases and other vulnerabilities. Seems to me junk DNA is most likely the record of what we've lost genetically over the millennia.
But let's see you all prove your thesis since so far it's only been assumed.
This is just the usual flimflam runaround. I believe it is your job to present whatever evidence you think you have so that a reader of the thread could follow it without having to open links. It's not my job to prove my argument, it's yours to prove the assertions on this thread before I joined it.