Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?

You ask for examples in which the Bible uses the phrase three days and three nights when only 36 hours are involved. You also want examples where three days and three nights is derived from a small portion of daylight on one day and one full day; plus, two nights You won't find it.
The word "and" in three days and three nights prevents the amount of time being anything less than 72 hours.
Most young kids know that three days and three nights require three periods of dark and three periods of light Look at Gen chapter one.
I don't: know of anyone who who leaves late on Friday and plans to return on Sunday who would use the term. "I'll be back in three days and three nights. It's absurd
The word "and" (Kai) is a copulative/cumulative force. It unites/joins what comes after with what comes before. Furthermore, Kai means plus; also; both; in addition; and, etc....
So (houto) in verse 40 (for as Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; So (houto) shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth
Houto simply means "in this way/ manner; referring to what precedes or follows.
Read Mat 12:38-40 very, very carefully. The sign offered as proof that Jesus was the Messiah was not the resurrection; although, this was the culmination of it.
The actual sign was the amount of time that He would remain the tomb. If He did not remain in the tomb for three days and three nights, by His own admission , He is to be dismissed as our saviorMat 27:63 and Mark 8:31 states that Jesus would rise "after" (meta) three days. Meta denotes accomplishment and sequence. The entire three days had to be completed (accomplished) before Christmas would rise.
Christ rose exactly at the very second that three days was ending. A mere second longer would not have been on the third day.

You ask for examples in which the Bible uses the phrase three days and three nights when only 36 hours are involved. You also want examples where three days and three nights is derived from a small portion of daylight on one day and one full day; plus, two nights You won't find it.
The word "and" in three days and three nights prevents the amount of time being anything less than 72 hours.
Most young kids know that three days and three nights require three periods of dark and three periods of light Look at Gen chapter one.
I don't: know of anyone who who leaves late on Friday and plans to return on Sunday who would use the term. "I'll be back in three days and three nights. It's absurd
The word "and" (Kai) is a copulative/cumulative force. It unites/joins what comes after with what comes before. Furthermore, Kai means plus; also; both; in addition; and, etc....
So (houto) in verse 40 (for as Jonah was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; So (houto) shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth
Houto simply means "in this way/ manner; referring to what precedes or follows.
Read Mat 12:38-40 very, very carefully. The sign offered as proof that Jesus was the Messiah was not the resurrection; although, this was the culmination of it.
The actual sign was the amount of time that He would remain the tomb. If He did not remain in the tomb for three days and three nights, by His own admission , He is to be dismissed as our saviorMat 27:63 and Mark 8:31 states that Jesus would rise "after" (meta) three days. Meta denotes accomplishment and sequence. The entire three days had to be completed (accomplished) before Christmas would rise.
Christ rose exactly at the very second that three days was ending. A mere second longer would not have been on the third day.

The very essence of your question concerns "time." To assume that 3 days & 3 nights is equal to 1 day and 2 nights takes a leap of faith.I would gladly go out of my way to find examples (assuming there are any), if you show me why you or anyone else refuse to believe what Matthew so clearly stated

I think that the truth should be defended. The resurrection is the only reason that Sunday is held in such high esteem, but what if the resurrection was not on Siunday?Sunday keepers outnumber Sabbath keepers twenty to one. I would think that a Sunday keeper would want to defend his belief.People attack Matthew's words. They try to twist them to fit their own agenda.I am simply saying that Matthew recorded exactly what he meant, and I will defend himThere is no reason to be mad at me. After all, this is a discussion board. And, I have not tried to offend anyone.

The term "three days and three night" is not ambiguous.Matthew could not have been any clearer. There is no better or more concise way to say "three days and three nights" than to say "three days and three nights."To break one of the 10Commandments is the same as breaking them all. The attack on the 7th day Sabbath is the easiest one for Satan to attack.

In your original post you asked for "other instances" where a period of one day and three nights was in JIL commonly referred to as "3 days & 3 nightsMy point is that you don't even have one instance, certainly not Matthew 12:39-40.In any event, if you are seeking examples of this in JIL, you must also look for examples of it in the Hebrew language in use at the time of JonahAfter all, Jesus and Jonah were dead for the same amount of time.But, this is your post and your question, and I respect that.

I would like to know if anyone is aware of instances in which an individual used "common" sense language to express "3 days & 3 nights," when this is exactly what that individual meant.No one, not even an idiot, would use the phrase "3 days & 3 nights" when referring to 36 hours, or one day and two nights.

Do you realize how ridiculous it sounds to say that there is a way to say "3 days and 3 nights" when in fact only 1 day and 2 nights has elaspsed?What if I offered you three 1 ounce gold coins and three 1 ounce silver coins for a certain car
but only gave you one gold coin and two silver coins. Would you then be gullible enough to hand over the car?Or, would common sense prevent you from doing so?Why are so willing to believe that Matthew, who was entrusted with the words of God, and who wrote by the power of the Holy Spirit, would record such a blatant lie?Jesus was placed in the tomb just before the "going down of the sun" on Wednesday. The following day, which was perhaps mere minutes from beginning, was the annual high Sabbath-the Feast of Unleavened Bread.Jesus Rose from the tomb late on the weekly Sabbath--Saturday, just before the "going down of the sun." "3 days and 3 nights" ,exactly. Just as Matthew recorded.All New Testament scripture supports this fact.

Rstrats, you asked: "Off topic, but how do you reconcile that
with Luke 24: 21?***The men asked Jesus if He was a stranger in Jerusalem.
They asked how He did not know about "things which
happened there in these days?" (18).All of these things that concerned Jesus included the
morning following the crucification.Matthew 27: 62-66. Pilate allowed the Pharisees to post
guards and secure the tomb for the next three days.The guards were posted on Thursday morning. Three days
from then would be Sunday. This fits perfectly with Luke 24.Jesus was crucified on the fourteenth of Nisan in 31 A.D.
The fourteenth of Nisan in 31 A.D. fell on Wednesday, April 25th.Just as Jesus stated in Matthew 12: 38-40, He was in the
tomb three days and three nights.Jesus told us how long he would be in the tomb. There is no
way that He could have said it any clearer.Jesus staked His claim of being the Messiah on the exact
amount of time that He would remain in the tomb.I have been off the forum for several months due to illness
and such. My wife and I are and have been in good health.
The illnesses and deaths involved members of our families.

Yes. Thank you.

Thank you, Zucadragon.