Is the thread author a supporter of the original 382 Vulgate?
I have gotten confused.
The Vulgate was a Latin text, largely based on the Hebrew Bible, and, among European Christians, the translator was almost idiosyncratic in his strong preference for the Hebrew Old Testament verses the Septuagint. The Vulgate Old Testament was done entirely by Jerome, and it was finished in the early 5th century. Earlier Vulgate translations were from the Greek Septuagint, and Jerome was one of many translators.
So, from 382 to roughly 405, the Latin Vulgate was containing an Old Testament that came from Greek manuscripts. After 405, it was from the Hebrew text.
(Jerome hated the Apocrypha, but that is another story)
Now the New Testament:
It was also the first text to include the exact same 27 books the make up the "New Testament" that has existed since.
Despite, Jerome's personal preference, the Gospel of Matthew was from the Greek version. Every text is from the Greek.
I am unclear about the thread author's view on any of these developments. From the first to the last.