Why isn't anybody following their nose in this? Wouldn't the biological, physiological, mechanism lie in the receptors and mechanisms for responding to pheromones?
I am a male and the female scent is very influencial (for lack of finding the right word). OK, it's been a long time, but when my ex and I were still intimate, her scent would very nearly shut my neo-cortex down completely. At the same time, I've been in close proximity to other men over the years and I have always found their smell to be unpleasant, even repulsive.
Believe it or not, when my former therapist tried to get me to use on-line dating, it just went completely against the grain. I think it was in part because the photos told me absolutely nothing about those women, including how they smelled. I'm not being weird here; we are much more sensitive and responsive to smells than most people realize.
Why couldn't homosexuality be due in part -- perhaps in large part -- to a response to pheromones?
Edited by dwise1, : No reason given.
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