circular argument.
using modern english colloquial expressions
derived from the bible or from classical hebrew idioms does not prove that such language was "metaphorical" and certainly not in all instances.
especially wrt to "day" as that idiom is directly taken from biblical hebrew. the english usage that clues the reader in on it being an idiom is
precisely the same as the hebrew usage -- other usages mean different things.
all you are essentially proving is that the bible has influenced our language, and that we use expressions from the bible figuratively. not that the expressions were figurative to begin with.
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