quote:
Whenever one uses the generic term 'god (elohiym)' as a sacred title, the reply becomes irrelevant since the term for deities, god--elohiym, was first consecrated by Scribes and translators, and is one of the evidences demonstrating that all your versions of new testament came from the same source; one mastercopy that contains the ordinance of Litanies left to the Vatican; whether you call it Sacred Vulgate or not.
LOL...by this reasoning, the fact that a book - any book - uses the word 'obscene' means that all such books come from the same source, because Shakespeare coined the word in 'Love's Labours Lost.'
It is not only a non sequitur, it is breathtakingly unconnected. It is, I think, the worst (or best) non-sequitur I have ever seen...
Here's the thing - EVERY word was once used for the first time...that is sort of how it generally happens. The fact that the word is used in later texts tells you only that the particular word was written after the first use of that same word. It tells you nothing about the original source of the document. It tells you nothing about the document at all, since all we have is a couple of scraps from around the end of 1st century CE, and bits and pieces of manuscript over the next 200 years. The oldest remaining fuill copy is indeed the vulgate - or more accurately the Codex Vaticanus. Interestingly it lacks Gen.1-46:28; portions of II Kings 2; and Psalms 105-137. The New Testament is missing Heb. 9:14; I and II Tim.; Titus and Revelation. And of course the last 12 verses of Mark are not included. So if we apply your logic, those sections in the modern bible are clearly all complete forgeries.
(No such thing follows, of course, as is obvious to anyone who can reason at grade-school level).
Edited by Bikerman, : No reason given.