KJV: "Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken"
RSV: "Immediately after the tribulation of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken".
Point 1: There's no indication that the darkening of the Sun is the cause of the darkening of the moon.
Point 2: In both translations, the light is specifically attributed to the moon itself ("her light", "its light").
Point 3: In the very next phrase of the verse, a scientific impossibility is asserted - that the stars will "fall from heaven".
quote:" He saw in his vision that the Sun got dark, and AFTER that, the moon not longer was bright"
There is no "after" in the verse, only "and"'s. By your reading, we should also infer that the moon losing its light is causing the stars to fall from the sky, but you don't seem to be arguing for that.
I'm all for this verse being a poetic expression of Christian eschatology using the understanding of the natural world in the 1st century. And if this is understood as poetic expression, just because it doesn't fit with current understanding doesn't mean one must choose between religion and science.
But there's no indication in that verse that this is an example of science and the Bible "meeting", as per your thread title, nor that the author understood modern astronomical concepts at all, nor any indication of the three events listed being causally related to each other.