(I cant paste but this is in responce to your 539/516 BCE comment)
Yes, I do understand that plain reading of the text.539BCE would be the general idea. (There are some other interpretations though, and the guy may have been refering to later events perhaps closer to the time of Ezra)
I want to respond to the previous message that wasnt directed to me though.
You have decided that you *KNOW* which specific person the author of Daniel was refering to.
Why do you think that the dates dont add up (are we assuming that each day equals a year?).I mean that takes us back to about 660 BCE.
There were fairly precise historical records back then.But the Jews auctually had a slightly LOWER chronology (if anything)as far as their calculations were concerned, not higher as your theory would require.
True that some isolated time periods were longer (for example, Josephus gave 612 years from the 1st Temple to the Exodus where as most modern scholars give 284-480 AND there was also a longer time from between the 1st Temple to the 2nd Temple in the Jews ancient understanding), but there general chronology was lower.
Let me ask you something.
Do you feel that the events in Daniel were viewed by legalistic Jews as completed or unfinished? (Im refering mainly to "non-messianic" or less-messianic Jews when I say legalistic) (also I am refering mainly to the BCE/BC period).What do you feel the views were of more messianic type Jews.
When exactly do you feel that the post-fact "prophecies" were written down? In the same week as the events? Less than 7 years after?
I am wondering what dynamics you feel were responsible for the book being held in such regard in its day and a few centuries after (less important though still worth mentioning is that it is in the Tanak to this day).
Thanks!
Edited by Nimrod, : No reason given.