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Author Topic:   What is the biggest bible contradiction?
Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 10 of 311 (365400)
11-22-2006 1:56 PM


Correct Forum?
How do we determine what is the 'biggest' contradiction?
Surely this belongs in accuracy and inerrancy forum?
Brian.
Edited by Brian, : No reason given.

Replies to this message:
 Message 11 by Chiroptera, posted 11-22-2006 2:01 PM Brian has replied
 Message 14 by AdminNem, posted 11-22-2006 7:52 PM Brian has replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 13 of 311 (365412)
11-22-2006 2:10 PM
Reply to: Message 11 by Chiroptera
11-22-2006 2:01 PM


Re: Correct Forum?
More proof the universe wasn't designed.
Perhaps it was just poorly designed?
Yahweh isn't the cleverest of gods, so He could have designed the universe to the best of His ability, He just wasn't very good at it!
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 11 by Chiroptera, posted 11-22-2006 2:01 PM Chiroptera has not replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 16 of 311 (365766)
11-24-2006 1:35 PM
Reply to: Message 14 by AdminNem
11-22-2006 7:52 PM


Re: Correct Forum?
but it seems the OP's point of view as far as the biggest contradiction stems for a scientific point of view.
Sorry, don't see that at all!
That's why I thought the theological aspects of creation/evolution would suit this topic best.
Yet not a single post so far has been anywhere near these issues and the member had requested Accuracy and Inerrancy.
I think it looks out of place here.
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 14 by AdminNem, posted 11-22-2006 7:52 PM AdminNem has not replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 46 of 311 (366332)
11-27-2006 1:40 PM
Reply to: Message 42 by anastasia
11-26-2006 11:19 PM


Re: Gospel of John
as John was an eye-witness.
This is inaccurate.
The author of John is at least second-hand information.
For example:
John 21:15-25 is clearly in third person.
Theres a great many more internal clues that this Gospel was written by an non-eyewitness, you just need to study it a little more critically.
Also, you should be aware that all four Gospels are anonymous works.
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 42 by anastasia, posted 11-26-2006 11:19 PM anastasia has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 47 by Phat, posted 11-27-2006 1:48 PM Brian has replied
 Message 49 by anastasia, posted 11-27-2006 4:10 PM Brian has replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 48 of 311 (366337)
11-27-2006 2:22 PM
Reply to: Message 47 by Phat
11-27-2006 1:48 PM


Re: Gospel of John
Brian, are you sure that your sources are the final word on this subject?
The title of the Gospels themselves are the sources.
Take John as an example. All my Bibles have the title:
The Gospel According to Saint John.
The others have the 'according to' as well.
So, it is according to what someone thought the Gospel of John was. It may possibly be a scribe who has copied down words from a few oral sources, or any number of possibilities. But John is quite different from the synoptics and is far too late to be the disciple John.
You could also look into the naming of the Gospels if you get time, you'll be surprised just how late some of the namings took place.
Matthew's Gospel, for example, was given its title by Papias around 130 CE, why did he have to name it if it was written by Matthew?
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 47 by Phat, posted 11-27-2006 1:48 PM Phat has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 51 by anastasia, posted 11-27-2006 4:50 PM Brian has replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 58 of 311 (366437)
11-28-2006 4:30 AM
Reply to: Message 49 by anastasia
11-27-2006 4:10 PM


Re: Gospel of John
In the tradition of the church he is thought of that way,
In Church tradition Jesus rose from the dead, so much for tradition.
Sure, this entire thing could be made up, but then we would not have much of a debate going on! so, back to business.....
I am sure we could debate over why it was made up and the consequences, it is easy to find things to debate.
In the Bible John is an eye-witness. We may not know for sure that he is the same man who wrote the Gospel of John, but generally speaking, this is not questioned nearly as often as it is with the other evangelists and even Paul.
I think it isn’t questioned as much because it is pretty obvious that it wasn’t written by the evangelist, the debate over the authorship is really over so there’s no big debate, John didn’t write the Gospel we have.
I am very aware of the usage of third person narration in John. It adds to its appeal tremendously for me;
It adds to the likelihood of propaganda for me.
it is his way of making himself unimportant in the text, of putting the message before the messenger and downplaying his significance. He usually reverts to third person mode, you will notice, in moments of confidence or tenderness bestowed upon him by Jesus, such as when Jesus turned to John at the Last Supper and laid John's head against His breast.
So you can psychoanalyse someone who died 2000 years ago?
Third person narratives are usually indicative of a novella, which, of course, the Gospels are.
I am not sure it would credit John to go around bragging about these things.
Well, since we don’t have anything John wrote, we do not know if John bragged or not.
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 49 by anastasia, posted 11-27-2006 4:10 PM anastasia has not replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 59 of 311 (366440)
11-28-2006 4:51 AM
Reply to: Message 51 by anastasia
11-27-2006 4:50 PM


Re: Gospel of John
Strike two! the words 'according to' mean what they say, or they would be called 'the gospels, according to what someone thought was John'.
Don’t follow your reasoning here, as having the words ”according to’ is adequate enough to inform us that someone was writing what they thought John’s Gospel was.
If we have John’s Gospel it would not have the ”according to’ in the title. It would simply be called The Gospel of John; since it is ”according to’ we know that it was not written by John, but by some other person(s).
I will help...If I say "according to my sister, the party is at 4 o'clock" it does not mean 'according to what someone thought my sister said'.
Um, yes it does! It means according to you your sister said that party is at 4 o-clock. It doesn’t actually mean that your sister said this does it?
So, how do I know your sister said the party is at 4 o-clock? I only have your word for that and you might have any number of reasons for passing on misinformation. You might tell me it is at 4 o- clock when it is actually at 2 o-clock so your sister dumps me and you can have me all to yourself
Again, I do not mean to tell you that just because those words are there, means you have to believe them, but only that the person who put the words there believed them.
This is also inaccurate.
All writing is simply a creation of the human mind and as such does not have to be what the author believed, it is simply what the author wants the reader to believe. This isn’t to say that the author didn’t believe these things but surely you are aware that there are a huge amount of extant ancient texts that are full of propaganda and clearly inaccurate.
So, it is an error to assume that the author of a text believed that its contents are true.
The namings of the Gospels may have happened late. So what?
It adds to the possibility of error, it adds to the possibility of additions to the text, it adds to the probability that the text is pseudepigraphical.
They were being researched, they still are.
Why would the author of the original text not identify themselves?
If the Gospels were written by the evangelists then why wasn’t it common knowledge at the time who they belonged to? Texts from Jesus disciples and they weren’t deemed important enough to be identified with their authors? Seems highly improbable to me.
It makes no difference to me with Matthew, Mark, and Luke, what their names really were.
Same here.
They are in fact little more than names anyway biographically speaking.
Yes, who cares that the Gospels weren’t written by an eyewitness, who cares that the Church are lying over their authorship, who cares that millions of people are silly enough to swallow the propaganda of novel writers who were not even born when Jesus lived.
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 51 by anastasia, posted 11-27-2006 4:50 PM anastasia has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 60 by Phat, posted 11-28-2006 8:49 AM Brian has replied
 Message 63 by anastasia, posted 11-28-2006 11:20 AM Brian has replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 61 of 311 (366472)
11-28-2006 9:29 AM
Reply to: Message 60 by Phat
11-28-2006 8:49 AM


Re: Gospel of John
So what you are essentially asserting is that all human communication has its origin in the human mind----am I right?
Yes.
Take history writing as an example. We only have the author’s opinion of what happened, the process of putting together the sources, selecting what is and isn’t relevant, constructing the thesis is all done in the mind.
We do not know that the Bible was inspired. We can believe that it was, and a case can be made for some theological utterences as having an origin apart from human sources...but we do not know for sure.
Correct, we do not know for sure if what an author claims was information from a non-human source or not. How can we know information came from God if we cannot demonstrate that this entity exists?
Also, even if we could prove there was a God, the information that someone writes onto a page was constructed in their mind, we do not know if the information from God was copied down 100% accurately, humans are not perfect.
On the other hand, are we to conclude that all early Bible and church writers had an agenda that was human and fallible?
The early authors are not automatically labelled as untrustworthy, they may well have written what they believed was inspired, but how do we know this info is reliable. They may simply have believed they were communicating with God but were in actual fact just writing down what they themselves had believed and their experience was just a self fulfilling prophecy.
As far as the church writers go, we do know that Eusebius advocated lying as long as it furthered the teachings of Christianity.
If so, can any Holy Book be trusted?
This is down to faith. The Bible cannot be trusted as an accurate history book for two reasons. Firstly, it wasn’t written as a history book, it was written as a story of God’s relationship with his creations. Secondly, the ”history’ in the Bible has been shown to be extremely inaccurate in many instances. Thus, inaccurate information plus theological agendas equals untrustworthy.
If not, how in the world can a person make heads or tails of religion anyway?
Well it is down to faith again. Many Christians believe that the Bible is accurate because their faith hangs on the text, and if any of the text is inaccurate then their faith crumbles. It is a pretty weak faith that does this.
I’m sure psychologists can give many reasons for religion.
Historians certainly can.
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 60 by Phat, posted 11-28-2006 8:49 AM Phat has not replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 70 of 311 (366527)
11-28-2006 2:17 PM
Reply to: Message 63 by anastasia
11-28-2006 11:20 AM


Re: Gospel of John
I don't know about this. 'Gospel' is from an old word meaning good news. Is it the good news of John? No, it is the good news of Jesus, from John. In other words, the Gospel (of Jesus) according to John.
God knows what you are trying to pull now
I think we all know that the ”Gospel of John’ refers to the book credited to him in the New Testament. So why are you trying to be silly?
To be accurate, the word ”gospel’ was used by early Xians to refer to the entire scriptures in an attempt to keep them distinct from the Tanakh. It was recognised that the Xian texts were split inot 2 groups, Prophets (Old testament) and Gospel )NT).
But the word became a technical term for the particular books that recorded the story of Jesus’ life, message, and death. To keep the idea of the ”Good News’ united into one area of scripture the early texts of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John were put together and called “The Gospel according to Mark, Matthew, Luke and John”. (Lutterworth Bible Dictionary (1994) page 342.
But, the books of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John are known as the ”Gospels’, every Sunday school kid knows that.
Look, what I am saying is that the authors of the Gospels did not write the words 'according to' on there at all.
How do you know they didn’t?
Since there are no original mss there could have been anything written on them!
Now again, I will not stubborn it out and insist that they were all first hand accounts; I know they are not,
Hallelujah.
with the slight possibility of some parts of John.
So, how do you decide which parts are from ”John’ and what parts aren’t?
But when it comes to drawing weighty conclusions from the words on the title page, it is better to understand what the words actually mean, and that they were put there after the fact,
I know what the words mean, it isn’t me having the problem and dancing all over the place.
Once again you repeat that they were put there after the fact without having any proof of this!
than to think that you were the first to discover this 'proof'.
When did I claim this?
This is about the meaning of a word, not the motives of the speaker.
Indeed, and if the motive of the speaker in ”John’s’ Gospel was to convince the reader that Jesus was God incarnate then it follows logically that he would say whatever it takes to convince the reader.
I did not say that the authors of any texts believed they were true. I said the person who put the words 'according to John' on the title page believed that it was the work of John, some John, any John, presbyter John, disciple John.
So the person who put the words ”according to John’ means that he thought the Gospel was written by John or written by someone who wrote this down because he thought this was the Gospel according to John?
But, yet again, you jump to a conclusion without considering alternatives. You claim whoever put the words ”according to John’ on the title page believed that they were the words of John, but this is not the only possibility. He may have put them there to give more weight to the historicity of Jesus, he may have thought that the more texts they had from the disciples the more chance that people would be convinced of Jesus divinity. So, the person who placed the words ”according to John’ may not themselves have even believed it was John’s work, he only had to believe that other people would believe it was John’s work. Remember the early church were happy to lie to promote Jesus.
Sure maybe he had ulterior motives for putting the words there, but more likely the title page exists with the secret motive of seperating the books in your Bible. I think it is a shame to detract from the debate with this clearing up of things which have been taken out of context.
I think it is a shame I have to repeatedly correct people who misrepresent what history and source criticism are, but hey ho.
If you really want to get skeptical, we can never prove if we have original text, or just oldest existing texts.
This is nothing to do with being sceptical; these are two plain and simple facts. We do not have any original text of any Biblical text, new or old testament, nothing sceptical about it.
There could be many reasons why the authors did not identify themselves.
Yes, and we will never know for certain what the true reason is. This is just a fact of historical enquiry.
But I may just as well ask you the same question; if the gospels are some form of propaganda, don't you think the authors would be more likely to identify themselves?
Again though, you do not know IF they did identify themselves or not. But, in the first few centuries after Jesus death the great majority of the population was illiterate, and especially so in Xian circles as Xianity appealed greatly to the poor and ignorant. This meant that the Good News was spread initially by word of mouth and the audience would have been told who the author was, or was supposed to be.
A spiritual writer will not be as concerned about making a name for themselves as a political writer might be.
It is nothing to do with making a name for themselves, it is the simple fact that the information would carry more credibility if it was said to have been recorded by someone who witnessed these events.
Think about it for yourself. Who do you find more credible, someone passing on information ”from a friend’ or someone who saw the incident(s) first hand?
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 63 by anastasia, posted 11-28-2006 11:20 AM anastasia has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 73 by anastasia, posted 11-28-2006 3:03 PM Brian has replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 71 of 311 (366529)
11-28-2006 2:18 PM
Reply to: Message 64 by Hyroglyphx
11-28-2006 11:59 AM


Re: Gospel of John
John's actual words begin at, "In the beginning was the Word."
You know this because?
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 64 by Hyroglyphx, posted 11-28-2006 11:59 AM Hyroglyphx has not replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 77 of 311 (366550)
11-28-2006 3:56 PM
Reply to: Message 73 by anastasia
11-28-2006 3:03 PM


Re: Gospel of John
Ana writes:
So, the early xianists spoke Old English? To be accurate, they did not have the word 'gospel' at all.
So you have no idea why I put the word in inverted commas?
You are using the first definition. Definition c. is correct for the titles of the gospels.
No I'm not, I am using definition C.
God knows why you thought I was using A.
So you think all 4 of these books coincidentally say 'according to' on the first page of the original text? And you also think the authors did not identify themselves? How?
I didn't claim that they all had 'according to' on the first page, I said we didn't know what was on the originals.
This is another example of your lack of critical skills. For all we know 'John's' Gospel may have had 'according to' on the original and it was deemed important that the others had 'according to' added to them. It is equally possible that another Gospel had 'according to' written on it and it was added to John, or perhaps none of them had it written on them, we just don't know so you have to be careful about making absolute claims about any historical text.
Brian writes:
once again you repeat that they were put there after the fact without having any proof of this!
Ana writes:
Yep.
Oh well, another brain-washed fundy to ignore.
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 73 by anastasia, posted 11-28-2006 3:03 PM anastasia has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 80 by anastasia, posted 11-28-2006 6:44 PM Brian has not replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 91 of 311 (366734)
11-29-2006 6:39 AM
Reply to: Message 64 by Hyroglyphx
11-28-2006 11:59 AM


Re: Gospel of John
Brian writes:
Why would the author of the original text not identify themselves?
John did. He even writes it in chapter 21, when he says,
"Peter turned and saw that the disciple whom Jesus loved was following them. (This was the one who had leaned back against Jesus at the supper and had said, “Lord, who is going to betray you?”) When Peter saw him, he asked, “Lord, what about him?” (JOHN)
Jesus answered, “If I want him (JOHN) to remain alive until I return, what is that to you? You must follow me.” Because of this, the rumor spread among the brothers that this disciple (JOHN) would not die. But Jesus did not say that he would not die; he only said, “If I want him to remain alive until I return, what is that to you?” This is the disciple who testifies to these things and who wrote them down. We know that his testimony is true."
I don’t see where the author has identified himself as being the disciple John, could you point it out for me please?
As far as I can see the text is claiming that the disciple says that certain things are true and he wrote them down, it doesn’t say that these actual words that we have are the ones written down by John.
We don’t know what John’s original Gospel was like, simply because the original now longer exists, or hasn’t been discovered yet. It is quite possible that the original text is very different from the one that we have now.
But even if he didn't, it wouldn't much matter.
It would matter to some people.
The focus isn't on John, its on Jesus and always should be.
Yes, and it is quite likely that the author invented a great deal of information to convince people that Jesus was the Messiah, which is evidently not the case.
If the Gospel is a first hand account then we have evidence of Jesus direct followers being capable of lying to further their cause. If it is second hand we have evidence of early Christians inventing events to further their cause.
But it isn't critical information.
Well, not to you it isn’t, but it is to many others.
We're doing just fine not knowing the authorship of Job, fir instance.
Hold the front page Nem, we actually do not know the authorship of ANY Old Testament book, every single Old Testament book is anonymous.
And furthermore, we know that Paul authored most of the epistles, but that doesn't seem to make anyone believe in his testimony at all.
We also know that some of the epistles credited to Paul by the early Church are no longer credited to him. Hebrews, for example, is no longer considered to have been written by Paul.
Also, just because the authorship of a letter is known it doesn’t mean the contents are true. Just because we know Paul wrote a certain letter it doesn’t automatically follow that he is telling the truth. When we see Paul claiming that he was on the road to Damascus to perscecute Christians we know from comparative history that this is more than likely a lie. Under Pax Romana people were free to follow which ever religion they wanted without fear of persecution. We also do not have any evidence (that I know of) to support the claim that Romans allowed ”hit squads’ to wander around their provinces murdering whoever they wished.
This is a dubious plea by adding irrelevant circumstances to try and bring the gospels into disrepute.
The Gospels bring themselves into disrepute, you just need to try and study them without blinkers on.
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 64 by Hyroglyphx, posted 11-28-2006 11:59 AM Hyroglyphx has not replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 94 of 311 (366770)
11-29-2006 11:25 AM
Reply to: Message 92 by Kapyong
11-29-2006 8:08 AM


Re: it's all greek to me.
But Lingua Franca deosn't mean French Language.
I can never work out these smilies
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 92 by Kapyong, posted 11-29-2006 8:08 AM Kapyong has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 98 by Kapyong, posted 11-29-2006 5:34 PM Brian has not replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 95 of 311 (366822)
11-29-2006 1:27 PM
Reply to: Message 1 by Neutralmind
11-21-2006 10:06 AM


Different versions conflict as well.
What you might wish to ask you friend about is the differences between the different available biblical texts.
You may wish to ask your friend which particular version of the Bible is the accurate one because some are very different.
Here are some examples from the Book of Exodus:
Quotes from KJV
1:5 And all the souls that came out of the loins of Jacob were seventy souls: for Joseph was in Egypt already.
Masoretic Text (MT) and Septuagint (LXX) say seventy-five souls.
Incidently Acts 7:14 contradicts this verse as well.
7:14 Then sent Joseph, and called his father Jacob to him, and all his kindred, threescore and fifteen souls.
Back to Exodus.
1:22 And Pharaoh charged all his people, saying, Every son that is born ye shall cast into the river, and every daughter ye shall save alive.
MT, LXX, and Samaritan Pentateuch (SP) say “Born to the Hebrews.”
8:23 And I will put a division between my people and thy people: to morrow shall this sign be.
LXX reads “will put a deliverance”
12:40 Now the sojourning of the children of Israel, who dwelt in Egypt, was four hundred and thirty years.
The MT, LXX and SP all read Egypt and Canaan
The Old Testament is riddled with conflicts such as these. So, not only do all Bibles have internal contradictions, they also contradict other extant biblical texts.
Taking the Bible at face value is a waste of time and effort, and is only really for the moron.
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 1 by Neutralmind, posted 11-21-2006 10:06 AM Neutralmind has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 97 by Equinox, posted 11-29-2006 5:34 PM Brian has not replied

Brian
Member (Idle past 4980 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 104 of 311 (367070)
11-30-2006 11:11 AM
Reply to: Message 103 by ramoss
11-30-2006 8:51 AM


Re: Gospel of John
The Gospel of Matthew was written in Greek, although there are indications that some concepts were translated from the aremeic.
Interestingly, the man who named gMat, Papias, claimed that Matthew wrote his gospel in Hebrew!
Perhaps the one in our Bibles have nothing to do with Matthew the disciple?
Perhaps gMat is lost forever.
Brian.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 103 by ramoss, posted 11-30-2006 8:51 AM ramoss has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 107 by anastasia, posted 11-30-2006 1:31 PM Brian has replied

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