Is the bible the word of God or men?

i beleive that the bible was inspired by God, yet written by man.this means that God "untarnished", yet difficult to understand. was giving truth to man, "tarnished/faulty" and men just didnht quite understand all they saw or were told. and so basic truths were passed and recorded, and in refining, men added their law and proffessed it as Gods.ie: jesus made the remark, when being told he was not an observer of the law: that not one tith of the law did he overlook, yet he asked, what do you say about divorce?jesus claimed that the law of divorce was added because the people were selfish, and it was man mandated, and not God. yet the divorce law was interpreted by the pharasee's of that day as legal for many more reasons than jesus cited. this would show that the laws of man had found there way into text that was considered the laws passed by God.i beleive in the word of God and the bible as text inspired by the divine energy that was first, and that God holds a special purpose for mankind. yet under the evidence of this text alone, i cannot say for certain that all biblical text accepted today as the word of God, is the word of the devine being.

jesus was pointing out that the pharisees were hipocrits, that they were not above sin, although they were prosecutors of the law.thats why he made the comment.jesus not a christian: christians are beleivers in the doctrine of christ, so he wouldnt be a christian, but the christ.

my point is: OT, torah, NT, any of the text, was written by man. and copied andre-written. simply saying : oooh but THIS text is mandated that if you subtract or add ytoull go to hell, does not mean that nothing was added or subtracted.take mormans for example. a reknown con man copied the bible and made a few changes and started another religeon. he obviosly was not concerned but his motivation was money.political motivations, also, would take a faithless man to faith books and modify them to his purpose for an ignorant public,and in those days, who could be the wiser?im only suggesting that there is no way to prove that nothing has been added or subtracted from ancient texts. in the case of subtraction, with the book of enoch being removed from the current christian bible, it would appear that subtraction can be proven in christian instance.

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keep your mind from this way of enquiry, for never will you show that not-being is
~parmenides

i am willing to admit that if any changes were made, the bulk of the text was recorded verbatim.but under your statement:Consider that there is no change of today's OT with the Scrolls. Admittedly, this only proves no changes for 2300 years - but this is still the longest period of no change in all recorded works.i cannot admit with absolution that no changes were made under the earlier system before survivable writing: verbatim.can you at least acknowledge my observation of the possibility?

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keep your mind from this way of enquiry, for never will you show that not-being is
~parmenides

the reason i have failed to take the text as infallible is because the human race is not perfect. so i question any man made document.however, what your saying is fascinating.the OT, does it include the book of Enoch?where can i get text that is unchanged OT literature?

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keep your mind from this way of enquiry, for never will you show that not-being is
~parmenides

i cant afford that, but i'd like to read it. ill try to dig it up eventually. thanks

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keep your mind from this way of enquiry, for never will you show that not-being is
~parmenides