CS writes:
Well neither are the "slaves" in the Old Testament "actual literal slaves as modern society defines slavery".
Um yes they are. How are they not literal slaves?
The point was
as modern society defines slavery...
Even your book says that "slave" could have just meant something like "servant", as modern society defines the term.
Enslavement of one person over another in this manner should not be condoned or justified.
Why not? and how do you know this?
Without slaves, could the Pyramids have been built?
I just don't think that slavery is absolutley immoral like you are arguing.
and then you're taking it further with god condoning slavery in the OT and saying that this makes god a bad guy.
Slavery can be justified.
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