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Author Topic:   One evolving species vs speciation.
Wounded King
Member
Posts: 4149
From: Cincinnati, Ohio, USA
Joined: 04-09-2003


Message 15 of 48 (430966)
10-28-2007 3:46 PM


Argument from another thread
This post is a repsonse to Hoot's critique of a article posted by Schraf in the Good Scientists Gone Bad -- Dr. Watson and Dr. Pauling thread.
Schraf posted an extract...
Let's look at the major claim: that humans will subspeciate. I can't think of anything less likely among a species that has major gene flow between all its populations on a scale of thousands of generations. Species aren't formed by selection for differing adaptive traits within a population, but by the interruption of the gene flow that is caused by migration or invasion between populations. Take a look at human gene flow over the past 10,000 years - massive amounts of interbreeding and invasive gene flow. Not a hint of the sorts of isolation required for a mammalian species to speciate in sight. Not even the Tasmanian aborigines, who were isolated for about 10,000 years. Not even the San or M'buti. Nada.
And Hoot said ...
Hoot writes:
Just a question of clarification: Do you mean to say that you agree with the sentence I've highlighed in orange? I'd say the author has demolished only his own credibility.
Why not try and make a reasoned argument Hoot.
No one conversant with current evolutionary theory would consider this to demolish the authors credibility, they might disagree with it, or with some of its particulars, but it is not beyond the pale of current evolutionary theory. to some extent it depends on how you read the statement.
Taking the most extreme interpretation that adaptive selection played no role, there is still some currency for the idea that non-adaptive neutral drift can play a part in speciation, even though it may not be accepted and its importance is often considered minor. A review by Douglas Futuyma of two books on speciation mentions points both for and against a role for drift.
Futuyma writes:
Very different kinds of data, ranging from DNA sequences to correspondence between RI and ecological divergence, support natural selection, but there is hardly enough evidence, in my opinion, to support Coyne and Orr's strong conclusion that “at least one important debate has been settled: selection plays a much larger role in speciation than does drift”
Coyne and Orr appear to adopt selection as the null hypothesis for speciation, whereas drift is generally taken as the null hypothesis in much of evolutionary genetics, for the simple reason that drift operates at all loci in all finite (i.e., real) populations, whereas selection need not. The burden of demonstrating that selection is not responsible for an evolutionary event (i.e., demonstrating a negative) is, of course, far heavier than the burden of demonstrating selection; indeed, Coyne and Orr do not address the difficult question of what would constitute evidence for drift. Having, perhaps, stacked the deck, Coyne and Orr find almost no evidence that drift has contributed to speciation in nature, but conclude that there is “considerable evidence” that selection has done so
Assuming that experiments with laboratory populations can be validly extrapolated to natural speciation processes, founder-effect speciation may indeed be a moribund hypothesis, but I do not believe long-term genetic drift can yet be ruled out, and cannot agree that this “important debate has been settled”
This article also bring up another good example which may be considered a suitable basis for considering 'selection for differing adaptive traits' not to be the foundation of speciation, sexual selection. It is debatable whether the products of sexual selection coud be considered adaptive in the usual sense. For myself I would consider them so, as adaptations to that element of the environment consisting of other members of the same species, but others might take a differing view that sexual selection is a distinct process .
That aside I think his argument falls down on as the mere fact that human have not speciated and show some signs of differing traits associated with more isolated geographical populations in no way makes a coherent argument with the proposition that species cannot be formed by 'selection for differing adaptive traits', merely that this has not occurred in the case of H. sapiens considered as one extended population.
And lets not forget he is talking about within a population, or sympatric speciation.
At its best interpretation all the author is claiming is that reproductive isolation is required for speciation, the most acceptable evolutionary claim imaginable, although exceptions may be posited. Even in a sympatric case speciation is considered to require reproductive isolation, the inital basis of the RI may be due to adaptive selection on variation in the population but the speciation itself need not be driven by this.
So what exactly is it you object to, how do you understand the statement and what about it makes you think it demolishes the authors credibility?
It seems to me that such offhand glib unsupported statements argue more against your own credibility.
TTFN,
WK

Replies to this message:
 Message 17 by Fosdick, posted 10-28-2007 4:42 PM Wounded King has replied

  
Wounded King
Member
Posts: 4149
From: Cincinnati, Ohio, USA
Joined: 04-09-2003


Message 18 of 48 (430981)
10-28-2007 5:57 PM
Reply to: Message 17 by Fosdick
10-28-2007 4:42 PM


Re: Argument from another thread
I think species can be formed by multiple mechanisms, not all of which are selective, as I have argued with you before in other threads.
Perhaps this was one of the many times you argued with me about a position I have never held.
To argue that "species aren't formed by selection for differing adaptive traits within a population" is to ignore the role of natural selection.
No, it is to suggest that adaptive selection in a population is not sufficient to produce speciation.
Other "forces" in addition to gene flow play their parts in speciation, too. Don't you agree?
Certainly, but the author is clearly not claiming that the existence of a barrier to gene flow is speciation, otherwise putting two populations in separate sealed containers would be an example of speciation.
To simplify the terms the author suggests that a reduction in gene flow is necessary, though not necessarily sufficient, for speciation to occur and that natural selection is not sufficient for speciation to occur. I don't think he goes further than positing a block to gene flow as the precipitating event leading towards speciation, certainly not as far as ruling out any other contributing factor.
So I agree with what you said but I don't see any basis for thinking that the original author would have disagreed with it.
TTFN,
WK

This message is a reply to:
 Message 17 by Fosdick, posted 10-28-2007 4:42 PM Fosdick has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 20 by jar, posted 10-28-2007 6:11 PM Wounded King has replied
 Message 21 by Fosdick, posted 10-28-2007 7:01 PM Wounded King has not replied

  
Wounded King
Member
Posts: 4149
From: Cincinnati, Ohio, USA
Joined: 04-09-2003


Message 23 of 48 (430996)
10-28-2007 7:09 PM
Reply to: Message 20 by jar
10-28-2007 6:11 PM


Re: Human speciation?
I'd say yes, for a given value of reasonable. The most obvious 'reasonable' scenario would be some global cataclysm knocking people back to the stone age in technological terms and leaving only a few isolated groups in distant locations. The reasonableness of such a scenario is highly dependent on how long it would take such populations to reach a technological level allowing them to make substantial sea voyages, i.e. trans-atlantic/pacific. A lot of current theories seem to suggest the required level is 'not all that much'.
TTFN,
WK

This message is a reply to:
 Message 20 by jar, posted 10-28-2007 6:11 PM jar has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 24 by jar, posted 10-28-2007 7:16 PM Wounded King has not replied

  
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