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Author Topic:   Free Will and Biblical Prophecy: Are They Mutually Exclusive?
PaulK
Member
Posts: 17827
Joined: 01-10-2003
Member Rating: 2.3


Message 91 of 227 (495198)
01-21-2009 2:08 PM
Reply to: Message 90 by Stile
01-21-2009 1:55 PM


Re: Back to definitions
quote:
Why is the question now whether we have Free Will to violate? I thought you said the questino was whether we have the Free Will to violate in principle? If the principle is present, why do we actually require the physical possibility?
You are wrong on both points. If we do not have free will the idea that we might have had it in principle serves only to make the problem worse.
quote:
No good to me, I just said it was possible to have immutable prophecy and Free Will at the same time. I never said it was useful.
If God is locked into a fixed course of action, unable to use His knowledge of the future to change the course of events by intervening then God is in a sorry state.
quote:
No. I very much care if we HAVE Free Will. I just think that the principle of Free Will is much more important then the actual 'going through the motions' of it. And, if the principle is present, then however the motions are made is irrelevent.
Then your arguments are very confused. Wording the prophecies so they do not change the course of events is possible whether we have Free Will or not. Yet if it is not possible even in principle to go against prophecy then we do not have Free Will at all.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 90 by Stile, posted 01-21-2009 1:55 PM Stile has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 94 by Stile, posted 01-21-2009 3:31 PM PaulK has replied

  
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.6


Message 92 of 227 (495208)
01-21-2009 3:05 PM
Reply to: Message 89 by Modulous
01-21-2009 1:44 PM


Re: Free Will
Hi Mod,
Modulous writes:
Are you suggesting that God was incapable of softening their hearts?
No I am not suggesting that God was incapable of softening their minds (hearts).
I am saying that since man has free will He would not soften their mind to accept Him.
If He did there would be no free will.
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 89 by Modulous, posted 01-21-2009 1:44 PM Modulous has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 93 by Modulous, posted 01-21-2009 3:19 PM ICANT has replied
 Message 97 by caldron68, posted 01-21-2009 8:27 PM ICANT has not replied
 Message 106 by Agobot, posted 01-22-2009 11:42 AM ICANT has replied

  
Modulous
Member
Posts: 7801
From: Manchester, UK
Joined: 05-01-2005


Message 93 of 227 (495212)
01-21-2009 3:19 PM
Reply to: Message 92 by ICANT
01-21-2009 3:05 PM


Re: Free Will
No I am not suggesting that God was incapable of softening their minds (hearts).
I am saying that since man has free will He would not soften their mind to accept Him.
If He did there would be no free will.
I'm confused. You said that Jesus tried to soften their hearts but failed to do so. Are you making one of those convenient distinctions between Jesus and God? Then I guess that ends this line of discussion.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 92 by ICANT, posted 01-21-2009 3:05 PM ICANT has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 98 by ICANT, posted 01-21-2009 9:15 PM Modulous has replied

  
Stile
Member
Posts: 4295
From: Ontario, Canada
Joined: 12-02-2004


Message 94 of 227 (495213)
01-21-2009 3:31 PM
Reply to: Message 91 by PaulK
01-21-2009 2:08 PM


Re: Back to definitions
If we do not have free will the idea that we might have had it in principle serves only to make the problem worse.
I don't mention anything about "might have had free will in principle" at any point.
I specifically state that we must, absolutely, HAVE it in principle, or we do not have free will.
Yet if it is not possible even in principle to go against prophecy then we do not have Free Will at all.
I totally agree. Which is why I specifically state that the possibility must exist in principle or we do not have Free Will.
You say I'm wrong and that my arguements are confused.. and then you make statements that exactly match my arguements.
Again, it would probably be more helpful if you tried to show what you think is screwed up in the example I provided for Straggler just a few posts back.
Message 86
Edited by Stile, : Added link to post with example

This message is a reply to:
 Message 91 by PaulK, posted 01-21-2009 2:08 PM PaulK has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 95 by PaulK, posted 01-21-2009 4:57 PM Stile has replied

  
PaulK
Member
Posts: 17827
Joined: 01-10-2003
Member Rating: 2.3


Message 95 of 227 (495224)
01-21-2009 4:57 PM
Reply to: Message 94 by Stile
01-21-2009 3:31 PM


Re: Back to definitions
I can make no other sense of "having free will in principle" other than "might have had free will". After all it must be distinguished from simply having free will - and more limited than having free will.
quote:
I totally agree. Which is why I specifically state that the possibility must exist in principle or we do not have Free Will.
Then it is more important than whether a prophecy is worded so as not to affect the decisions of those who read it or not. But you argued otherwise.
quote:
You say I'm wrong and that my arguements are confused.. and then you make statements that exactly match my arguements.
That match SOME of your arguments and disagree with others. THat is WHY I say that you are confused.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 94 by Stile, posted 01-21-2009 3:31 PM Stile has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 100 by Stile, posted 01-22-2009 7:22 AM PaulK has replied

  
Straggler
Member (Idle past 94 days)
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


(1)
Message 96 of 227 (495248)
01-21-2009 7:32 PM
Reply to: Message 86 by Stile
01-21-2009 10:29 AM


Refuted Again?
Straggler writes:
At what point in your version of free-will do we freely decide what we want?
Please answer that question - Your whole argument rests on the notion of "true desires" or "what we want anyway" so it is imperitive that you explain how this can be immutably known with regard to every situation and every decision that might occur but is never actually faced. How?
Whatever your definition of free-will you seem unable to answer this basic question. Thus your whole argument is unfounded.
Stile writes:
My guess is that you have a problem with Odin being able to see the future. Of course, this is something I've placed as a requirement since the very beginning of my arguement.
Omnipotently being able to see the future logically displays the static life-line of every intelligent creature in existence.
Your guess is wrong. My whole argument is based on those of us who are non-eternal, non-omnipotent and non-omniscient and the limitations that immutable prophecy has on our decisions.
It is what we know via prophecy and the limitations that this necssarily imposes on our free-will that is the question at hand.
In the context of this debate I have no problem with the concept of an omnipotent being that can passively observe the entirety of a man's life past present and future all at once.
A single "static line" if you will that encompasses all of the choices that the man has made in his life into a single path. That's not the problem.
Scenario continued (now with Odin interference):
Carl was born, went to school, and became a water treatment engineer. At some point in time Carl has the choice to manage the incoming water section, the purification water section, or the outgoing water section of the plant.
Carl knows this and Odin knows this.
Odin can see the future. At some point, Carl will die. At this point, even we could look back on Carl's life and see all the decisions he made (including their randomness) as a single, static line through time.
Odin can see the future, Odin can see this even before it has happened in our present (that's the definition of "seeing the future"). As long as Odin does not interfere at all, Carl will continue to make his decisions exactly as he'd like, including the same randomness they've always had until he dies, following the static line that only Odin knows about.
I say Carl has free will.
I assume you also say Carl has free will?
OK
Odin knows that if he changes Carl's life (like, say... explodes the water treament plant where Carl works) then Carl will find a new job and Carl's previous "non-interference" static line becomes a different static line.
Therefore, the only one who can change this "non-interference" static line of Carl's life is Odin, by interfering.
The prophecy-free reality and the prophecy-inclusive reality are not the same reality. They are not the same "static line".
In fact the only "static line" is the one actually taken by Carl.
Any "what if" scenarios (i.e. what if the prophecy did not exist) that are never actually experienced by the agent of free-will are inherently unknowable.
Unknowable because we cannot immutably know what an agent of free-will would have done in any given specific scenario without denying them the free-will to choose otherwise
Odin can see the future decision in Carl's "non-interference" static life that Carl decides to manage the boiling section of the plant.
There is no static line if Carl never actually experiences this prophecy-free scenario.
Odin can see the future decisions in Carl's static life-line if Odin tells Carl about managing the boiling section of the plant. And it turns out that Carl still decides to manage the boiling section of the plant.
By interfering, by prophecising, by notifying Carl Odin necessarily creates a new reality, a new timeline. This is the line actually traversed by Carl if the prophecy is made.
But let's consider your hypothetical prophecy-free timeline for a moment.
What if we reverse time in this hypothetical prophecy-free scenario of yours and Carl makes a different decision? What then?
If he has free-will at the point of that decision then there is no guarantee that he will make the same decision is there?
EXAMPLE
At the point that Carl decides to manage the boiling section of the plant we reverse time. He exerts his free-will and decides to manage the boiling section of the plant. At the point that Carl decides to manage the boiling section of the plant we reverse time. He exerts his free-will and decides to manage the boiling section of the plant. At the point that Carl decides to manage the boiling section of the plant we reverse time. He exerts his free-will and decides to manage the boiling section of the plant. At the point that Carl decides to manage the boiling section of the plant we reverse time..........
He exerts his free-will and decides to manage the "incoming water section" of the plant.............
WHY CAN THIS NOT HAPPEN IN A FREE-WILL SITUATION?
What immutable prophecy can be made regarding Carl's "true desires" now?
Once a prophecy has been added to the scenario this last possibility is eliminated. Thus free-will in the timeline that includes the prophecy, the btimeline actually traversed by Carl, is denied.
Odin can see the future decisions in Carl's static life-line if Odin tells Carl about managing the boiling section of the plant. And it turns out that Carl still decides to manage the boiling section of the plant.
There is no static lifeline regarding a future never experienced by Carl unless Carl has no free-will and works on the basis of a pre-programmed response to every specific situation.
If Odin immutably knows what Carl would do given a specific set of circumstances that Carl will never actually face (i.e. a prophecy-free reality) then he is denying Carl his free-will. This is obvious.
The whole point of free-will is that until an agent of free-will is given the opportunity to express their free-will the decision that they make is necessarily unknown. The time line is necessarily open and non-static. The timeline ony becmes static once the choices have been made in the exact circumstances encountered.
Any sense of "what they would have done" is necessarily a form of pre-meditation and thus denies free-will.
Thus your whole "what if the prophecy never existed we can immutably know what they would do" argument is inherently flawed in terms of any concept of either freedom or will.
Edited by Straggler, : No reason given.
Edited by Straggler, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 86 by Stile, posted 01-21-2009 10:29 AM Stile has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 101 by Stile, posted 01-22-2009 7:56 AM Straggler has replied

  
caldron68
Member (Idle past 3869 days)
Posts: 79
From: USA
Joined: 08-26-2007


Message 97 of 227 (495257)
01-21-2009 8:27 PM
Reply to: Message 92 by ICANT
01-21-2009 3:05 PM


Re: Free Will
ICANT writes:
No I am not suggesting that God was incapable of softening their minds (hearts).
I am saying that since man has free will He would not soften their mind to accept Him.
If He did there would be no free will.
God hardened Pharaoh's heart, didn't he.
So much for free will.
Cheers,
--Caldron68

This message is a reply to:
 Message 92 by ICANT, posted 01-21-2009 3:05 PM ICANT has not replied

  
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.6


Message 98 of 227 (495262)
01-21-2009 9:15 PM
Reply to: Message 93 by Modulous
01-21-2009 3:19 PM


Re: Free Will
Hi Mod,
Modulous writes:
I'm confused. You said that Jesus tried to soften their hearts but failed to do so. Are you making one of those convenient distinctions between Jesus and God? Then I guess that ends this line of discussion.
No they are one and the same.
He came to seek and to save the lost.
He must have convinced some of them, the one's who did not participate.
Not everybody cried crucify Him.
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 93 by Modulous, posted 01-21-2009 3:19 PM Modulous has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 99 by Modulous, posted 01-22-2009 6:29 AM ICANT has replied

  
Modulous
Member
Posts: 7801
From: Manchester, UK
Joined: 05-01-2005


Message 99 of 227 (495369)
01-22-2009 6:29 AM
Reply to: Message 98 by ICANT
01-21-2009 9:15 PM


Re: Free Will
So God tried to do something. Was able to do something. But that something didn't happen?
Can you see why I might be confused?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 98 by ICANT, posted 01-21-2009 9:15 PM ICANT has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 103 by ICANT, posted 01-22-2009 10:55 AM Modulous has not replied

  
Stile
Member
Posts: 4295
From: Ontario, Canada
Joined: 12-02-2004


Message 100 of 227 (495373)
01-22-2009 7:22 AM
Reply to: Message 95 by PaulK
01-21-2009 4:57 PM


Re: Back to definitions
PaulK writes:
I can make no other sense of "having free will in principle" other than "might have had free will". After all it must be distinguished from simply having free will - and more limited than having free will.
It is distinguised... between the two definitions I've been trying to show the differences between.
My definition of Free Will:
The ability to get what you want from the situation presented given no outside interference from any external being.
The phrase "no outside interference" requires that the principle of free will is included, nothing about "might have"... only "must".
That match SOME of your arguments and disagree with others. THat is WHY I say that you are confused.
Don't place that on me... it maches SOME of my arguements that you correctly say I say... and it doesn't match the other arguements you make up and say that I say... which I don't actually say at all. If you're going to use a strawman, that's your problem. This certainly is a confusing topic to discuss, and it certainly is my fault if you're getting confused about what I say... but don't adamantly ascribe things to me that I'm definitely not saying... that's just not honest.
Again, I've provided a very nice, clear example of what I'm talking about in that previous post to Straggler, if you think the principle of free will is removed from that scenario please state where and how. Also, please state which part of my definition of free will that you do not agree with.
I've clearly stated my definitions and their use in an example. If we move the discussion towards those clear baselines instead of fringe elements, we'll be better able to identify where we are talking past each other.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 95 by PaulK, posted 01-21-2009 4:57 PM PaulK has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 112 by PaulK, posted 01-22-2009 2:29 PM Stile has replied

  
Stile
Member
Posts: 4295
From: Ontario, Canada
Joined: 12-02-2004


Message 101 of 227 (495380)
01-22-2009 7:56 AM
Reply to: Message 96 by Straggler
01-21-2009 7:32 PM


Consistency is required
Straggler... you may want to skip most of this reply until near the bottom where I reply to your "reversing time" comments. I think that is where our major issues reside. However, I do not want to delete the beginning part of this reply because it's useful side-information anyway.
Straggler writes:
Whatever your definition of free-will you seem unable to answer this basic question. Thus your whole argument is unfounded.
Wrong again, the answer you seek (where do we freely decide?) is found in the Example I provided (Message 86) in the "non-interference" life-line.
Straggler writes:
A single "static line" if you will that encompasses all of the choices that the man has made in his life into a single path. That's not the problem.
Good to hear, then we can continue.
The prophecy-free reality and the prophecy-inclusive reality are not the same reality. They are not the same "static line".
That is exactly my point.
IF the two are not the same static line, then Free Will is removed.
However, IF AND ONLY IF it is possible to add the information of the prophecy and the two remain the exact same static line... then free will is still intact.
I totally understand how this may be incredibly difficult given all the nuances of human thought. However, I do not place this incredible difficulty above the abilities of a being such as Odin.
That is all I've been saying.
In fact the only "static line" is the one actually taken by Carl.
Any "what if" scenarios (i.e. what if the prophecy did not exist) that are never actually experienced by the agent of free-will are inherently unknowable.
Unknowable because we cannot immutably know what an agent of free-will would have done in any given specific scenario without denying them the free-will to choose otherwise
My very point is that you cannot back this up.
I totally agree that this is unknowable to us humans.
What I'm saying is that this is not unknowable for a being like Odin. If we have an omnipotent, all-knowing, all-powerful being who can see the future... how is this then unknowable to Odin?
What makes this beyond Odin's abilities?
If Odin can see our "non-interference" static life-line, what makes it impossible for him to know how his interference will create a different static life-line? Especially given that he is "all-knowing?"
There is no static line if Carl never actually experiences this prophecy-free scenario.
How are you going to show that it is impossible for an all-knowing being like Odin to not know how this static line of Carl's would turn out even if Carl never actually experiences it?
I totally agree that we, as humans, are incapable of knowing how the random parts of Carl's decisions will turn out in any situation.
But, if we agree that Odin is capable of foreseeing these random choices in Carl's non-interference static life-line, even before Carl has actually experienced it, why do you not agree that Odin is capable of foreseeing other random choices of an alternate static life-line of Carl's before Carl actually experiences it?
What, exactly is the difference?
You agree to this:
Carl's non-interference static life line:
-contains random elements of Carl's decision making process
-Carl has not made these decisions yet
-Odin is able to foresee Carl's decisions before Carl makes them
You do not agree to this:
Carl's interference static life line:
-contains random elements of Carl's decision making process
-Carl has not made these decisions yet
-Odin is able to foresee Carl's decisions before Carl makes them
Why do you agree with one and not the other? If Odin has the ability to see what Carl will choose before Carl chooses it in one case, why can't Odin do it in another case?
What, specifically, is the difference?
What if we reverse time in this hypothetical prophecy-free scenario of yours and Carl makes a different decision? What then?
Then you do not agree that Carl's life-line into the future is a static line.
If it is possible to reverse time and Carl makes a different decision... then it is also possible to go forward in time and Carl makes a different decision... logically, anyway.
But you agreed that Carl's future was a static life-line (given no interference). So, if you want to stay consistent, this means that Carl's past (no matter how many times we re-run it) is also a static life-line (given no interference).
If there is a chance that re-running the past decisions may turn out differently... then there is a chance that running the future decisions even once may produce unpredictable results... and we're left with the ability to see the strict, static future to be impossible. Which may very well be true, my arguement rests on the ability of an omnipotent being to have this future-seeing ability. If we say that's impossible, then my arguement is also impossible. However IF such a thing is possible, the my arguement remains intact.
This is why I wanted to make sure you agreed that if Odin can see Carl's static non-interference life-line into the future, that free will was still intact.
Perhaps you'd like to retract such an agreement?
The rest of your post is irrelevent until we get past this issue.
In the context of this debate I have no problem with the concept of an omnipotent being that can passively observe the entirety of a man's life past present and future all at once.
A single "static line" if you will that encompasses all of the choices that the man has made in his life into a single path. That's not the problem.
It is the entire problem, actually.
What now?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 96 by Straggler, posted 01-21-2009 7:32 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 102 by Straggler, posted 01-22-2009 10:29 AM Stile has replied

  
Straggler
Member (Idle past 94 days)
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


(1)
Message 102 of 227 (495396)
01-22-2009 10:29 AM
Reply to: Message 101 by Stile
01-22-2009 7:56 AM


Re: Consistency is required
Straggler writes:
The prophecy-free reality and the prophecy-inclusive reality are not the same reality. They are not the same "static line".
That is exactly my point.
IF the two are not the same static line, then Free Will is removed.
Then we agree.........?
Stile writes:
However, IF AND ONLY IF it is possible to add the information of the prophecy and the two remain the exact same static line... then free will is still intact.
This is a contradiction in terms. This is truly impossible. This is where your whole argument falls flat.
A timeline is a unique sequence of points made up of events, choices and states of being (knowledge, thoughts, emotions etc. etc.). How can you conceivably insert an additional event including the knowledge that this event brings and the subsequent changes that this has on the state of being and call it the same timeline?
From the point on this timeline at which the prophecy is introduced the prophecy-including and prophecy-excluding timelines MUST diverge.
Anything else is contradictory.
I totally understand how this may be incredibly difficult given all the nuances of human thought. However, I do not place this incredible difficulty above the abilities of a being such as Odin
Does omnipotence include the ability to inherently contradict?
Can omnipotence make two things that are inherently different remain different yet be the same?
Can an omnipotent being create a weight that they cannot lift? etc. etc. etc.
For it is this sort of inherent contradiction that must exist if your claim that -
(prophecy-excluding timeline) = (prophecy-including timeline)
is to remain true.
Stile writes:
IF the two are not the same static line, then Free Will is removed.
The prophecy-excluding and the prophecy-including timelines are inherently and intrinsically different.
Thus free-will is negated as we both agree.
Only by absolute internal contradiction can you claim otherwise.
Straggler writes:
Unknowable because we cannot immutably know what an agent of free-will would have done in any given specific scenario without denying them the free-will to choose otherwise
My very point is that you cannot back this up.
I totally agree that this is unknowable to us humans.
What I'm saying is that this is not unknowable for a being like Odin. If we have an omnipotent, all-knowing, all-powerful being who can see the future... how is this then unknowable to Odin?
Odin can see the future. Fine. But this prophecy-excluding future never actually existed if Odin introduces his prophecy. Thus any conclusions he draws from this alterante reality future are irrelevant with regard to the future actually encountered, the one that includes the prophecy, by our agent of free-will.
What makes this beyond Odin's abilities?
The fact that by introducing a prophecy known to Carl he effectively deletes the prophecy-excluding future that he is basing his conclusions on.
If Odin can see our "non-interference" static life-line, what makes it impossible for him to know how his interference will create a different static life-line? Especially given that he is "all-knowing?"
If a being has free-will, if a being genuinely has free-choice then we can only immutably know what that being decides to do in a precise and specific situation once it has been observed to exert it's free-will in that exact precise and specific situation. Anything else is a denial of free-will.
Odin can watch the sequence of these demonstrations of free-will from his lofty eternal perspective. He can see the effect each point on the static non-interference line and how this relates to all subsequent points on that line.
But as soon as he introduces a prophecy, as soon as he has changed the mental state of our agent of free-will with that knowledge, he has changed the exact, precise and specific situation from which our agent of free-will was previously observed to form the rest of that prophecy-free timeline.
The timeline IS different from that point on. Anything else is inherently contradictory.
How are you going to show that it is impossible for an all-knowing being like Odin to not know how this static line of Carl's would turn out even if Carl never actually experiences it?
Because this contradicts any notion of choice or free-will.
If we immutably know what somebody would do is a precise situation that they have never even considered or encountered then how can it be said that they have any choice should they ever actually consider or encounter that situation?
There are no choices there is only an immutable certainty. Any choice is an illusion. The action is wholly deterministic.
Do you see the problem here?
But, if we agree that Odin is capable of foreseeing these random choices in Carl's non-interference static life-line, even before Carl has actually experienced it, why do you not agree that Odin is capable of foreseeing other random choices of an alternate static life-line of Carl's before Carl actually experiences it?
Because the first is observing, from an eternal perspective, the net result of Carl's free-will choices. The net result of the actual choices Carl really does make in the entirety of his life
The second however is only one alternate reality amongst an infinite number. At every choice in Carl's life another potential branch exists. If Carl, our agent of free-will, is not exerting his free-will to narrow down these branches and make a single line then who is?
Of all the possible alternatives that can exist how is there a single line for Odin to observe?
Do you see the problem here?
What, exactly is the difference?
One timeline is defined by Carl's free-will and the other is not.
You agree to this:
Carl's non-interference static life line:
-contains random elements of Carl's decision making process
-Carl has not made these decisions yet
-Odin is able to foresee Carl's decisions before Carl makes them
You do not agree to this:
Carl's interference static life line:
-contains random elements of Carl's decision making process
-Carl has not made these decisions yet
-Odin is able to foresee Carl's decisions before Carl makes them
Why do you agree with one and not the other? If Odin has the ability to see what Carl will choose before Carl chooses it in one case, why can't Odin do it in another case?
What, specifically, is the difference?
Because in one case Odin is watching the net effect of Carl's free-will as a single timeline.
In the other case there can only be a single line to observe if Odin, rather than Carl, selects one.
Do you see the difference?
Straggler writes:
What if we reverse time in this hypothetical prophecy-free scenario of yours and Carl makes a different decision? What then?
Then you do not agree that Carl's life-line into the future is a static line.
The net result of all Carl's choices in life form a static line from an eternal perspective.
But if we erase a piece of this line from the end to a point where free-will can be exerted then potentially a single line that is different to the original could be formed.
But there is only ever a single line.
Carl has free-will. At no point on his line are his subsequent actions pre-determined. The path taken depends on the choice made.
If it is possible to reverse time and Carl makes a different decision... then it is also possible to go forward in time and Carl makes a different decision... logically, anyway.
But you agreed that Carl's future was a static life-line (given no interference). So, if you want to stay consistent, this means that Carl's past (no matter how many times we re-run it) is also a static life-line (given no interference).
From and eternal perspective which are the future parts of the line and which are the past? This makes no sense.
Take any point on the line and remove the end of the line from that point (removing the beginning of the line would result in Carl springing into existence at that point and is forbidden unless Odin wants to perform a miracle).
A single static line will reform. The exact path of this line will depend on Carl's real choices. The exact path of this line might be different each time Odin erases the end of the line.
Such is the nature of free-will.
This is what I meant by reversing time from Odin's perspective.
Odin from his eternal perspective will only ever see a single static line. Which line he see depends on Carl's free choices.
Anywthing else is a predetermined path that denies Carl any free-will at all.
How can Carl have any free-will at any point in the line if the path after that point is immutable and unchangable even if erased?
If there is a chance that re-running the past decisions may turn out differently... then there is a chance that running the future decisions even once may produce unpredictable results... and we're left with the ability to see the strict, static future to be impossible. Which may very well be true, my arguement rests on the ability of an omnipotent being to have this future-seeing ability. If we say that's impossible, then my arguement is also impossible. However IF such a thing is possible, the my arguement remains intact.
Your argument does not remain intact.
Your single, immutable and repeatable static line inherently denies choice and free-will at every point upon that line. How can it possibly be otherwise?
This is why I wanted to make sure you agreed that if Odin can see Carl's static non-interference life-line into the future, that free will was still intact.
Perhaps you'd like to retract such an agreement?
No I don't want to retract this. Carl's choices, whatever they may be, form a unique static line from Odin's eternal time-external perspective. That's fine by me.
But it is Carl who must shapes this line if free-will is to be maintained. There is no predetermined line. There is only Odin's ability to see whatever line Carl creates in full from his eternal perspective.
The rest of your post is irrelevent until we get past this issue.
Really? Hmmmmmm.
In the context of this debate I have no problem with the concept of an omnipotent being that can passively observe the entirety of a man's life past present and future all at once.
A single "static line" if you will that encompasses all of the choices that the man has made in his life into a single path. That's not the problem.
It is the entire problem, actually.
What now?
Well........
You could try explaining how a timeline in which a prophecy event and the subsequent knowledge that this imparts can possibly be identical to a timeline in which this event and knowledge are not present?
You could try explaining how a decision made using free-will can be guaranteed to be immutably the same if repeated?
You could try and explain how a static and wholly repeatable timeline can possibly result in anything other than pre-determination and denial of free-will at every point along that line.
How's that?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 101 by Stile, posted 01-22-2009 7:56 AM Stile has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 104 by Stile, posted 01-22-2009 11:10 AM Straggler has replied

  
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.6


Message 103 of 227 (495398)
01-22-2009 10:55 AM
Reply to: Message 99 by Modulous
01-22-2009 6:29 AM


Re: Free Will
Hi Mod,
Modulous writes:
So God tried to do something. Was able to do something. But that something didn't happen?
Can you see why I might be confused?
Sure I can understand how you can be confused.
You don't understand that God limits Himself when it comes to your free will.
He is not going to make you do something you don't choose to do.
He will not force you to do anything.
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 99 by Modulous, posted 01-22-2009 6:29 AM Modulous has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 105 by Brian, posted 01-22-2009 11:12 AM ICANT has replied
 Message 159 by Straggler, posted 01-24-2009 6:01 AM ICANT has replied

  
Stile
Member
Posts: 4295
From: Ontario, Canada
Joined: 12-02-2004


Message 104 of 227 (495402)
01-22-2009 11:10 AM
Reply to: Message 102 by Straggler
01-22-2009 10:29 AM


We need to clear up the inconsistency first
You are no longer being consistent. If you are not going to be consistent, we cannot have a meaningful conversation. This is what I'm talking about:
Straggler writes:
The net result of all Carl's choices in life form a static line from an eternal perspective.
But if we erase a piece of this line from the end to a point where free-will can be exerted then potentially a single line that is different to the original could be formed.
But there is only ever a single line.
Carl has free-will. At no point on his line are his subsequent actions pre-determined. The path taken depends on the choice made.
Your premise and conclusion here do not make sense with your definition of free will.
Take another look at the first and last sentences of that paragraph:
The net result of all Carl's choices in life form a static line from an eternal perspective.
...
Carl has free-will. At no point on his line are his subsequent actions pre-determined. The path taken depends on the choice made.
You admit Carl has a static decision life-line into the future, if observed by a non-interfering, omnipotent Odin.
You admit that it is possible that Carl still has free will and his actions are not pre-determined... in the sense that the decisions are up to him and him alone (including some aspect of randomness).
Your definition of Free Will: the ability to choose between alternate available futures.
But you say Carl has a STATIC future life-line.
If Carl's future life-line is STATIC, there is no alternatives available to him. And, by your own definition of Free Will, Carl no longer has Free Will.
This is all with a non-interfering Odin.
So, what is it?
Does Carl have a STATIC future life-line with no Free Will?
Or do you need to adjust your definition of Free Will?
Or is the STATIC future life-line actually not static at all?
This are all your words, I'm not even in this conversation anymore. You'll have to correct this inconsistency in your thoughts before we can move forward.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 102 by Straggler, posted 01-22-2009 10:29 AM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 107 by Straggler, posted 01-22-2009 12:04 PM Stile has replied

  
Brian
Member (Idle past 4987 days)
Posts: 4659
From: Scotland
Joined: 10-22-2002


Message 105 of 227 (495403)
01-22-2009 11:12 AM
Reply to: Message 103 by ICANT
01-22-2009 10:55 AM


Re: Free Will
He is not going to make you do something you don't choose to do.
He will not force you to do anything.
Have you ever read the Book of Jonah?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 103 by ICANT, posted 01-22-2009 10:55 AM ICANT has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 123 by ICANT, posted 01-22-2009 10:55 PM Brian has replied

  
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