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Author Topic:   Biblical question for original version scholars (Rrhain, doctrbill,etc)
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 1 of 11 (51553)
08-21-2003 1:30 PM


I have a question for Biblical scholars (specifically those that have read its original versions) which has kind of nagged me for a while.
Let me start by admitting that I see the bible as mainly a hodge-podge of earlier (and some contemporary for that time period) mythological stories. Some of course are based on historic realities, even if biased accounts of them, but other passages much less real.
The mythic portions I believe to be allegories, or perhaps better termed "fables" or "teachings" rather than literal accounts. I assume most of you will be with me up to this point.
Now here's the deal... The "fall of man" and his redemption by Christ has NEVER read to me the way I have always heard it interpreted. I have read it many times and simply do not see what religious types claim is being said. Granted this is helped by my not taking it literally, but even taken in a literal sense that only really effects the Christ portion.
.........
1) The "Fall" of man: From the Bible Adam and Eve start out in the "paradise" of Eden. Whether literal or figurative makes no difference. They live here free and naked and fully sexual, and one must assume having children as God's curse later is that from then on childbirth would be painful.
In other words they were living a very free existence that is almost verboten by today's religious standards. In fact, there are no proscriptions against any sexual behavior (and obviously incest is a necessity at this point of the game).
Yet I almost universally hear that while Eve's "eating the apple", brought sin upon all of mankind for having disobeyed God, their nudity was really bad, their sexuality was bad, and they only properly realized it after eating the apple.
That just does not make sense to me. Literally God tells this couple he has set nude and sexual into paradise, not to eat from the tree of Knowledge. But what was that Knowledge that they gained from eating its fruit? Not knowledge of sex or nudity (which obviously they had been practicing) but the knowledge that things like sex and nudity are wrong.
Doesn't that, even taken literally, mean that it was man's learning to judge God's creations as right and wrong (and therefore to judge God himself) which is the only sin which concerned God? Like He was insulted to have his own creations feel upset with the way he has them living?
That would make the curse he set upon man all the more meaningful. Essentially he made their newfound judgements and fears about his--- up to that point--- beautiful creation, concrete.
Even taken literally the rest of the Bible makes sense, albeit in a different tone. First he creates basic rules to bind his "chosen people" closer to himself (once again saying "don't eat at the tree" and judge me from some other standard) as well as rules of basic conduct which would make sense given their judgemental attitudes.
Taken allegorically it is almost Eastern in flavor, or true Epicurean if we think of Greek culture. Essentially man is in a state of paradise until he learns to judge... which man mistakes as knowledge. Without judgements of right and wrong life just is what it is.
But man does judge. It appears to be a fact of nature that most men choose to judge, or impose their judgements. And most of them are in relation to sex, property, and what the nature of the world really is. So unite under one common belief, and live according to these rules of behavior which will end conflicts based on feelings of jealousy or hatred (which naturally arise from judgements about the state of the world).
2) Christ's redemption of man. Although God's 10 little lessons should have worked, they did not. Instead more judgements have continued in the name of those rules. Paradise has not rematerialized.
So God sends down a son to help man reattain the nonjudgemental attitude once held in paradise. Kind of cutting to the heart of the problem. Look at all of Christ's teachings. They are about not worrying about one's condition in life and not judging others. He specifically does not say hey cut out all of that sexiness and sinfulness so you will be better off (ie lets stone the prostitute). He says stop imposing rules and judging others, look to yourself and trust that love of God and his creations will be enough.
Again, the allegory fits along these same lines. Seek peace in trying to attain inner calm no matter what the world and others toss at you.
.........
Now am I totally crazy in coming away from the Bible with this interpretation? Literal or allegorical?
What does the original text use for its words regarding that "tree of knowledge" whose fruits brought sin down on mankind?
I'm sure to catch hell for this post, but I just gotta know.
------------------
holmes
[This message has been edited by holmes, 08-21-2003]

Replies to this message:
 Message 2 by Agent Uranium [GPC], posted 08-22-2003 5:50 PM Silent H has replied
 Message 3 by Brian, posted 08-22-2003 6:09 PM Silent H has replied
 Message 4 by doctrbill, posted 08-22-2003 10:27 PM Silent H has not replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 5 of 11 (51974)
08-23-2003 1:04 PM
Reply to: Message 2 by Agent Uranium [GPC]
08-22-2003 5:50 PM


agent U writes:
Does this mean some Aramaic versions of Genesis, etc. exist, and that scholarly individuals here speak it?
From what I understand it is still in contention whether aramaic formed a lot of the original language. While spoken by many, it is thought that greek and hebrew formed most of the writings.
But that's a totally different topic altogether.
------------------
holmes

This message is a reply to:
 Message 2 by Agent Uranium [GPC], posted 08-22-2003 5:50 PM Agent Uranium [GPC] has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 10 by truthlover, posted 08-31-2003 11:40 PM Silent H has not replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 6 of 11 (51976)
08-23-2003 1:19 PM
Reply to: Message 3 by Brian
08-22-2003 6:09 PM


brian writes:
So do you mean the earliest extant texts?
No offense but isn't the answer to your question pretty obvious? I only meant "original" in reference to what versions were used to translate the Bible into latin and/or english. I feel safe in asserting that no latin or english translations were made from the original-and-ancient text which is not around today.
But just in case I am wrong about that, the answer is yes... I meant earliest KNOWN AND EXISTING versions of the Bible.
------------------
holmes

This message is a reply to:
 Message 3 by Brian, posted 08-22-2003 6:09 PM Brian has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 7 by Brian, posted 08-27-2003 7:41 PM Silent H has replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 8 of 11 (52744)
08-28-2003 7:29 PM
Reply to: Message 7 by Brian
08-27-2003 7:41 PM


Thanks for you excellent post.
If anything, your excerpts and translations support exactly what I was saying, even if some of the interpretations did not always do so.
The tree of knowledge appears to be what gives man the ability to "know" good and evil... i.e. it does not seem reasonable that it is about omniscience.
Again, this indicates the idea that in our pure state, humans were free from concepts of right and wrong, and that (whether in God's eyes or as an allegory) gaining such knowledge is what leads us to death (mortality).
I am not quite convinced God's proscription was as simple as a test of man's will, and willingness to observe proscriptions. It seems much more important, especially as a tale of meaning that it was the tree of knowledge from which man could not eat.
In fact I should mention at this point that several of the Rabbis interpretations of meaning, based on the translation of wording seem sceptical to me.
While it seems pretty obvious that A&E were innocent and naked as children are, I don't see the serpent getting them into hot water because it will make God jealous with how knowledgeable they will become. It is only a specific level of knowledge they will be granted, the knowledge relating to judging others and themselves, which is it seems God feels (as many Eastern and some Greek philosophies suggest) is the beginning of trouble for men.
Specifically the discussion of "good and evil" in Chapter 3 number 5, there seems to be missing an idea that God may very well have given A&E all they needed to know morally, which is simply that they live. And that the tree of knowledge is not real knowledge but false knowledge... i.e. good and evil are ultimately unknowable and so deceiving. All other fruits provide nourishment, the fruit of judgement provides only death and suffering. And how seductive it is. One can know what is right and wrong just like God, rather than simply living as he has allowed us to do.
That is a logical way out of the possible contradiction/conundrum posed by this passage toward the "spirit of scripture".
The statement that God was not putting a "curse" on womankind seems patently false. If God says "I will" that tends to indicate he is going to change something. And the word "multiply" leaves empty any suggestion other than change. The fact that God is refering to the pain and sorrow related to childbirth, when he says "I will multiply" sounds like a curse on women to me.
------------------
holmes

This message is a reply to:
 Message 7 by Brian, posted 08-27-2003 7:41 PM Brian has not replied

  
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