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Author | Topic: What the KJV Bible says about the Noah Flood | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
ICANT Member Posts: 6769 From: SSC Joined: Member Rating: 1.6 |
Hi Theo,
Theodoric writes: Do you consider the Pacific, Atlantic, Arctic and Indian oceans, as well as the Mediterranean, Caribbean and Arabian Seas as one body of water or multiple? If the waters are connected they would be one body of water regardless of what we call a particular section. God Bless,"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."
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Theodoric Member Posts: 9201 From: Northwest, WI, USA Joined: Member Rating: 3.2 |
IWONT writes: NoNukes writes: I do not think the single land mass interpretation is required by the text. So are you saying the water was not in one place as the text says? Why do you think the first statement affirms the second? All the water can be in one place(connected) and there still be multiple large land masses.Facts don't lie or have an agenda. Facts are just facts
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NoNukes Inactive Member |
ICANT writes: So how do you connect these seas to one body of water?Aral Sea, Caspian Sea, Dead Sea, Sea of Galilee, Great Salt Lake, and the Salton Sea. I don't. Those things aren't seas in the same way that the Indian Ocean, Pacific Ocean, etc. are seas. For the purposes of my argument we can image them to be filled in with dirt. Those bodies of water don't serve as boundaries for continents. Surely you can see that having the water in one place still allows multiple continents.
Yes we have continents today but we do not have one body of water. The major oceans are all connected into one large super-ocean. I'm not arguing that current geography matches the Biblical description. I'm saying that current geography shows how we can have one ocean and multiple continents.
You would have to rule out any of the continents that contain the 6 landlocked seas mentioned above. Wrong, I could just rule out the land locked seas.
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Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 314 days) Posts: 16113 Joined: |
Are you saying there is not enough water in the mantel to fill the oceans 7 times? No, I'm saying that there wouldn't have been enough room in the oceans, or enough sediment, for the origin of the mantle water to be the oceans and for it to have been transferred to the mantle by subduction. You just haven't thought this through. If in the days of Peleg, seven times the volume of the oceans was transferred from the surface to the mantle, what did the surface look like just before this event took place? P.S: It's "mantle", not "mantel". A mantel is the ornamental facing round a fireplace. Edited by Dr Adequate, : No reason given.
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Dr Adequate Member (Idle past 314 days) Posts: 16113 Joined:
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I see the seperation of water from land as one of the anticipatory actions for forthcoming life, in all their numerous forms, requiring different habitats. It is also the first introduction of the earth's age: this action would have taken millions of years, as would the seperation of light from darkness in a critical mode and varied from the light/darkness ratio of other planets. A true scientific view must accept that life could not have evolved without such actions, and that the emergence of life is no random accident! Thus I see real science here, as opposed to many aspects of anti-creationists who nshout MYTH as their only response. Please do not address any further posts to me, as I lack both the ability to translate them into English and the patience to address them.
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Percy Member Posts: 22505 From: New Hampshire Joined: Member Rating: 4.9 |
ICANT writes: You did not question this passage or quote it.
quote: Debating would be a little easier if the Bibles in the OP was used to quote from. We can use any translation you like, it changes nothing. Here's the argument again, this time using the KGV:
quote: So when God's spirit was moving across the face of the waters they were everywhere, not just on the earth. He then created a firmament that divided the waters above the firmament from those below. Next he gathered the waters beneath the firmament into one place, namely the earth. Even if the word "seas" is actually the singular word "sea" you still have the same problem, as in, "He decided to go to sea" does not mean a single sea, it means a type of body of water. In some modern translations the word is rendered as "ocean", and when one asks, "Have you ever seen the ocean?" it doesn't mean one ocean, it means a type of body of water. You additionally have the problem that has been mentioned to you a number of times: All the oceans of the world are connected. The Atlantic/Pacific junction is at least 600 miles wide. The Pacific and Indian oceans have no junction, they just blend into each other. As Wikipedia describes it, "A continuous body of water encircling the Earth, the world (global) ocean is divided into a number of principal areas." How do you avoid this interpretation? Well, by now it's pretty easy to tell how. You just declare yourself correct despite the complete lack of evidence or ability to convince anyone. And what does any of this have to do with Noah's flood? At your current rate of progress you're not going to get around to discussing Noah's flood until at least post 1000, but I've got news for you: discussion ends at post 300. Better hurry it up. --Percy
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IamJoseph Member (Idle past 3698 days) Posts: 2822 Joined: |
Please don't say life as we know it could occur without the seperation of water and land in an open forum. The asylum is full.
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IamJoseph Member (Idle past 3698 days) Posts: 2822 Joined: |
Your own example best describes it. How is the fact the expanding universe has no effect on time a non sequitur - is the universe expanding only because Hubble discovered this - or since day #1!?
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IamJoseph Member (Idle past 3698 days) Posts: 2822 Joined: |
quote: My reading of Genesis is that once no land would have been discernible; the earth was fully covered with water; the land was submerged. The seperation action caused portions of land to rise up, resulting in mountains and fords. The drift factor here is secondary to the first action, and the emergence of life would be a subsequent event - no life was present before the primal seperation action.
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Theodoric Member Posts: 9201 From: Northwest, WI, USA Joined: Member Rating: 3.2 |
Why are you answering this post? It was a direct question to ICANT.
In the words of Dr. Adequate
quote: Facts don't lie or have an agenda. Facts are just facts
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Coyote Member (Idle past 2136 days) Posts: 6117 Joined: |
In message 51 you stated in regard to lengthened life spans: "It is based on the accepted premise of the universe's acceleration and de-acceleration."
Now in message 68 you state that "How is the fact the expanding universe has no effect on time a non sequitur...?" I would still like some scientific explanation as to how the average life span of modern humans (the last 10,000 years or so) has changed drastically. Archaeological evidence suggests shorter average life spans in the past. (This question is on topic as it pertains directly to the time Noah's flood occurred, based on either scientific or biblical evidence. In this case it was claimed that scientific evidence showed significantly longer life spans in the past, and that is what I am questioning.)Religious belief does not constitute scientific evidence, nor does it convey scientific knowledge.
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IamJoseph Member (Idle past 3698 days) Posts: 2822 Joined: |
quote: And chess champs make poor war generals. One must apply mind over matter here, not repeat everything they read as non-negotiable COMMANDMENTS. The issue of shorter life spans is also seen today - in countries where poor survival conditions are present. This has no bearing on the earliest periods where the earth was less impacted by such conditions as deseases, population and war displacements: the premise you apply is about history, not physics. It is again transcended by the physics of the universe expansion and its impacts.This factor gives scientific plausibility humans would have had greater life spans in the first 500 years, in diminishing ratios as conditions became impacted by negative factors. It also says a 24 hour day was relatively recent in the big universal picture.If one accepts the expansion premise - they must accept its reverse as we go backwards. Science 101.
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IamJoseph Member (Idle past 3698 days) Posts: 2822 Joined: |
Fine, but actually I was reply to a statement, not a person. This one:
"All the water can be in one place(connected) and there still be multiple large land masses." The land masses were originally submerged, was my point. Edited by IamJoseph, : No reason given.
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Coyote Member (Idle past 2136 days) Posts: 6117 Joined:
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And chess champs make poor war generals. One must apply mind over matter here, not repeat everything they read as non-negotiable COMMANDMENTS. I do archaeology for a living, with human skeletal analysis as one of my specialties. Don't equate this as "repeating everything I read" as you would be entirely wrong. Again.
The issue of shorter life spans is also seen today - in countries where poor survival conditions are present. This is what has been seen around the world for most of our 200,000 years as modern humans. No surprises there.
This has no bearing on the earliest periods where the earth was less impacted by such conditions as deseases, population and war displacements: the premise you apply is about history, not physics. Sorry, no. That is not supported by the facts.
It is again transcended by the physics of the universe expansion and its impacts.This factor gives scientific plausibility humans would have had greater life spans in the first 500 years, in diminishing ratios as conditions became impacted by negative factors. It also says a 24 hour day was relatively recent in the big universal picture.If one accepts the expansion premise - they must accept its reverse as we go backwards. Science 101. Nonsense 101. There is no scientific evidence for any of this. Stick to making biblical claims, but don't try to drag science down with you. Then you're only wrong in one field of study.Religious belief does not constitute scientific evidence, nor does it convey scientific knowledge.
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IamJoseph Member (Idle past 3698 days) Posts: 2822 Joined: |
quote: That is fine. Lets hope its not agenda preferred. Yet you disputed the primal relevance of 'names' in archeology, and you failed to respond to a host of links of prominent architects in that regard. We have proof today of 3,500 and 2,800 year ago that Israel and King David, for example, were historical entities solely from stone monument discoveries - only because of names embossed upon them - quoted by prominent archeologists as stunning proof. There was no way these factors would come about from C14 - in fact most archeoligists deemed these are mythical before! Where is your proof of 200,000 year modern [whatever that means!] man? If there is no scientific evidence for time factor variances in the expansion of the universe, then pray tell what does impact here? What do we measure earthly and cosmic time by? Was there a 24-hour day when our sun was 1 day old? Edited by IamJoseph, : No reason given. Edited by IamJoseph, : No reason given.
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