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Author | Topic: What the KJV Bible says about the Noah Flood | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||
IamJoseph Member (Idle past 3698 days) Posts: 2822 Joined: |
You can see from here, time is reliant on space bodies such as galaxies [cosmic time] and stars [solar time]. The space bodies are subject to universal space increments [expansion] - the stars existing are dependent on the expansion. In other words, if our earth was closer to the sun, the day would be longer!
quote: Edited by IamJoseph, : No reason given.
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Coyote Member (Idle past 2136 days) Posts: 6117 Joined: |
That is fine. Lets hope its not agenda preferred. Yet you disputed the primal relevance of 'names' in archeology, and you failed to respond to a host of links of prominent architects in that regard. We have proof today of 3,500 and 2,800 year ago that Israel and King David, for example, were historical entities solely from stone monument discoveries - only because of names embossed upon them - quoted by prominent archeologists as stunning proof. There was no way these factors would come about from C14 - in fact most archeoligists deemed these are mythical before! Those "names" don't prove what you suggest they prove. You've been wrong on this on several threads now.
Where is your proof of 200,000 year modern [whatever that means!] man? Evidence is best kept to another thread. For details, google "Omo."
If there is no scientific evidence for time factor variances in the expansion of the universe, then pray tell what does impact here? What do we measure earthly and cosmic time by? Was there a 24-hour day when our sun was 1 day old? Most of your comment has no relevance to anything. The sun has provided an approximately 24-hour day for as long as humans have been around, and that's good enough. But you still have not provided any scientific evidence, as you claimed you could, for significantly longer life spans in the past. No more rabbit holes. Please either provide scientific evidence for extended life spans or withdraw your claim.Religious belief does not constitute scientific evidence, nor does it convey scientific knowledge.
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Coyote Member (Idle past 2136 days) Posts: 6117 Joined: |
Your extended quote doesn't support your claims.
We are discussing life spans of humans in historic times. You are claiming humans had vastly extended life spans and I am suggesting that there is no scientific evidence for that claim.Religious belief does not constitute scientific evidence, nor does it convey scientific knowledge.
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IamJoseph Member (Idle past 3698 days) Posts: 2822 Joined: |
quote: That is not a response. Please tell us the significance of the Egytpian stelle discovery, dated 3,500 years and mentioning a war with Israel. All I said here was, it is proof there was an entity called Israel at that date, and this is derived only by a name imprint. Yes/no?
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IamJoseph Member (Idle past 3698 days) Posts: 2822 Joined: |
I already admitted this appears to contradict today's understanding. Equally, I cannot see any coherent reason for a writings saying this when there is no apparent benefit of it, other than to look ridiculous, and that it is, mysteriously, in alignment with other historical names & events being attached. I see no reason why, for example, we have no NAME pre-Adam for the 196,000 years you propose for modern man: names popped up only by some freak accident to align only with Genesis? It does not tickle your curious funny bone at all as ironic?
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Coyote Member (Idle past 2136 days) Posts: 6117 Joined: |
I see no reason why, for example, we have no NAME pre-Adam for the 196,000 years you propose for modern man: names popped up only by some freak accident to align only with Genesis? It does not tickle your curious funny bone at all as ironic? No names before writing was developed? Gee, I wonder why not... Actually, cartouches (names) were developed in Egypt during Dynasty IV, which lasted from ca. 2613 to 2494 BC. A quick google suggests the bible "is a collection of writings, and the earliest ones were set down nearly 3500 years ago." But none of this reflects on the extended life spans you are claiming for early humans. Please provide the scientific evidence you said you had to support this claim. No more off-topic rabbit holes, please.Religious belief does not constitute scientific evidence, nor does it convey scientific knowledge.
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IamJoseph Member (Idle past 3698 days) Posts: 2822 Joined: |
If you make claims modern humans are 200,000 years old, replying to it is off topic? - one should let it pass as if it was a fact? That is very hard to do. You are cherry picking what is off topic: because I asked you if you found the alignment of a name aligning so exactingly with Genesis as mysterious. That's why!
With regard to time being impacted by the growth of the universe, I have been giving you proofs. I also gave a premise where vegetation can precede sunlight, whereby the vegetation was not caused by the sunlight, which acts as the sustainence factor [food], not the causative one. We have sunlight on all planets - but no life. Why is that? I do see logic here which is not satisfied by the premise you hold: if vegetation is caused by sunlight - every planet should harbour vegetation. If you say this is due to critical conditions, then we have a host of similar critical conditions on this planet also; if critical conditions is the only factor, then its back to Genesis, which is telling us the same thing. Where is the anomaly? Texts are complicated with such heady issues, and pivotal words cannot be ignored. The Noah story is textually resting on Noah's household - where was it factored into the equation? Edited by IamJoseph, : No reason given.
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IamJoseph Member (Idle past 3698 days) Posts: 2822 Joined: |
quote: When was writings developed in the alledged 200,000 years of modern man? Give us a rough time frame to test your thesis, backed by reasonable evidence.
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Larni Member Posts: 4000 From: Liverpool Joined: |
wiki writes: It is generally agreed that true writing of language was invented independently in at least two places: Mesopotamia (specifically, ancient Sumer) 3200 BC and Mesoamerica 600 BC. Twelve Mesoamerican scripts are known of, the oldest from Zapotec Mexico. early writing - Google Search Pretty clear cut answer to your question.The above ontological example models the zero premise to BB theory. It does so by applying the relative uniformity assumption that the alleged zero event eventually ontologically progressed from the compressed alleged sub-microscopic chaos to bloom/expand into all of the present observable order, more than it models the Biblical record evidence for the existence of Jehovah, the maximal Biblical god designer. -Attributed to Buzsaw Message 53 Moreover that view is a blatantly anti-relativistic one. I'm rather inclined to think that space being relative to time and time relative to location should make such a naive hankering to pin-point an ultimate origin of anything, an aspiration that is not even wrong. Well, Larni, let's say I much better know what I don't want to say than how exactly say what I do.
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IamJoseph Member (Idle past 3698 days) Posts: 2822 Joined: |
quote: Fine. Now examine the period between 200,000 years ago and 5,500 years ago. This is a period of 195,000 years. We know that writings cannot occur without speech. We have indicators and evidences that writings developed a few centuries after speech; while we have no evidences of speech before 5,500 years - all those indicators and evidences are absent, to the extent of absolute zero proof for the entire 195,000 year period. This says there is no evidence of speech for the entire period of 195,000. I base the above figures with no provision given to items such as mass burials, cave markings datings without on the ground continuing and graduated surrounding backup, or of skeletal remains. These are not acceptable proofs of speech and only serve as an unsatisfactory circular debate. Conclusion of the evidences: 1. Speech endowed humans were not around a few centuries before writings appeared, namely before 5,500 to 6000 years ago. Zero evidences for the 195,000 period; which many also claim as 300,000 years of modern speech humans existing. 2. However one sides with the above, there appears a mysterious alignment with the 6000 year figure of the Genesis version of modern human history, at least to the extent a quickening of the pace began at this point, the like of which has never happened before - and has no equivalence to present as its justification. In fact its not just speech which is absent outside the Genesis version - we have no history per se before this dating.
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AdminPD Inactive Administrator
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This is not a science thread. Stop asking for scientific evidence.
It doesn't matter what claims are made. Off topic claims are not open for debate. This thread is about what the KJV Bible says about the Noah Flood.Please reread the OP to understand the nature of this thread. Please stick to the on topic issues and not the off topic issues.
Please do not respond to this message. Direct any comments concerning this Administrative msg to the General Discussion Of Moderation Procedures (aka 'The Whine List') thread. Thank youAdminPD Edited by AdminPD, : Removed closure statement.
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ICANT Member Posts: 6769 From: SSC Joined: Member Rating: 1.7 |
Hi NoNukes,
NoNukes writes: ICANT writes:
I don't. So how do you connect these seas to one body of water?Aral Sea, Caspian Sea, Dead Sea, Sea of Galilee, Great Salt Lake, and the Salton Sea. Those things aren't seas in the same way that the Indian Ocean, Pacific Ocean, etc. are seas. For the purposes of my argument we can image them to be filled in with dirt. Those bodies of water don't serve as boundaries for continents. You can imagine anything you like. That does not change the fact that they are bodies of water that is not connected to any other ocean or sea. Therefore they would not be considered a part of the water in one place of Genesis 1:9.
NoNukes writes: Surely you can see that having the water in one place still allows multiple continents. The land mass could be in any configuration as long as there was not any water landlocked within the land mass. The problem is that Science tells us the land mass was all in one place at one time, as the Bible tells us there was one land mass at one time.
NoNukes writes: The major oceans are all connected into one large super-ocean. But all the water is not in one place, at the present.
NoNukes writes: I'm not arguing that current geography matches the Biblical description. Then what was the geography in the description given in Genesis 1:9, 10?
NoNukes writes: I'm saying that current geography shows how we can have one ocean and multiple continents. But you don't have all the water in one place with the current geography.
NoNukes writes: You would have to rule out any of the continents that contain the 6 landlocked seas mentioned above. Wrong, I could just rule out the land locked seas. No you would have to empty them of water and put the water in one place to satisfy Genesis 1:9. Take a good look at my present avatar and tell me is the dark blue which represents water all in one place. God Bless,"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."
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ICANT Member Posts: 6769 From: SSC Joined: Member Rating: 1.7 |
Hi Dr,
Dr Adequate writes: You just haven't thought this through. If in the days of Peleg, seven times the volume of the oceans was transferred from the surface to the mantle, what did the surface look like just before this event took place? I don't think I said there was 7 times the volume of water in the oceans at the time of Peleg. I did say there was 7 times the amount of water in the mantle as there is in the oceans. As to what the surface would look like before that event took place, I believe it would have looked like my avatar minus the body of landlocked water. I know there was a lot more water in that body of water that was in one place than there is in the oceans today. Maybe I didn't think it through with your mind but I did the best I could with my little uneducated mind. But I have been told that if the Earth was divided in an instant into the continents we have today there would have been an awful lot of heat generated that would have to have been cooled. The rocks would have gotten very hot and since they would have been in the water the water would have done a lot of changing. Now as to why we don't have any record of that event written down for us to read that would explain how we do not know whether those people knew what happened or not. Since they were scattered all over the face of the Earth they may have thought a big earthquake had taken place. God Bless,"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."
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Panda Member (Idle past 3743 days) Posts: 2688 From: UK Joined: |
ICANT writes:
This is not a science thread. The problem is that Science tells us the land mass was all in one place at one time, as the Bible tells us there was one land mass at one time.What science says about a global flood is off-topic. So, what does the KJV Bible say?
ICANT writes:
So - the KJV does NOT state that there was a Pangaea-like land mass. The land mass could be in any configuration as long as there was not any water landlocked within the land mass.It could have been any kind of shape, as long as there was no land-locked water. If I were you And I wish that I were you All the things I'd do To make myself turn blue
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Percy Member Posts: 22505 From: New Hampshire Joined: Member Rating: 5.4 |
ICANT writes: NoNukes writes: ICANT writes:
I don't. So how do you connect these seas to one body of water?Aral Sea, Caspian Sea, Dead Sea, Sea of Galilee, Great Salt Lake, and the Salton Sea. Those things aren't seas in the same way that the Indian Ocean, Pacific Ocean, etc. are seas. For the purposes of my argument we can image them to be filled in with dirt. Those bodies of water don't serve as boundaries for continents. You can imagine anything you like. That does not change the fact that they are bodies of water that is not connected to any other ocean or sea. If I'm interpreting you correctly, you're saying two things,
The land mass could be in any configuration as long as there was not any water landlocked within the land mass. Now you're saying something different. Earlier you were saying there were no inland seas. Now you're saying there were no landlocked bodies of water? Really? No lakes or ponds?
But all the water is not in one place, at the present. All the world's oceans are interconnected. They are not isolated bodies of water. The Black Sea, the Mediterranean Sea, the Caspian Sea, the Aral Sea, these are all isolated bodies of water. The world's oceans? No. The "all in one place" in Genesis refers to the waters beneath the firmament, these waters evidently being spread everywhere beneath the firmament, being gathered together onto the Earth's surface. When are you going to get to the flood? --Percy Edited by Percy, : Grammar, typo.
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