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Author Topic:   General discussion of moderation procedures: The Consequtive Consecution Sequel
AdminPD
Inactive Administrator


Message 295 of 302 (320485)
06-11-2006 12:12 PM
Reply to: Message 294 by arachnophilia
06-11-2006 10:59 AM


Re: gen 1 + 2
quote:
There was a thread recently, and I have been told that they are common, about Genesis 1 and 2. Sadly, even those who may agree with me on this topic, were short coming with their explinations on why, if taken literally, they are not in contradiction with each other. I am here to clear up this errant thinking that Genesis 1 and 2 are contradictory as far as man being created after the beasts in Genesis 1, and then being "created" again, before the beasts, in Genesis 2.
It is still referring to a very specific portion.
I am here to clear up this errant thinking that Genesis 1 and 2 are contradictory as far as man being created after the beasts in Genesis 1, and then being "created" again, before the beasts, in Genesis 2.
The original topic Truthlover asked: Has anyone heard any better reconciliations of those two chapters?
Teets Creationist is arguing his specific reconciliation concerning when man was created in relation to the beasts.
Since he's new to EvC, I'd like him to have a chance to discuss his position and not have his thread turned into a rehash of the old thread.
You, jar, Faith, Randman, and ramoss have hashed this out several times. Give TC time to come back and participate in his thread.
I will revise my warning and have removed the off topic tags, but I do ask that veteran members not run off with the thread beyond the scope of the OP.
Is that a reasonable request?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 294 by arachnophilia, posted 06-11-2006 10:59 AM arachnophilia has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 296 by arachnophilia, posted 06-11-2006 12:29 PM AdminPD has replied

AdminPD
Inactive Administrator


Message 298 of 302 (320514)
06-11-2006 1:32 PM
Reply to: Message 296 by arachnophilia
06-11-2006 12:29 PM


Re: gen 1 + 2
The off topic tags have been removed.
quote:
in my opinion, the scope is a little TOO limited. we can't discuss other renderings (i've never seen kjv-onlyism enforced by moderators), i can't discuss the hebrew and the connotations therein, and we can't provide additional evidence that the stories are in fact different.
Sure you can.
Before the first warning people weren't making a case using other translations, they were just complaining about the KJV translation and what would be better. Like I said in the warning: This is not a discussion about what translation is best or if a translation influenced others.
Our English words developed out of foreign languages, so make your case from the Hebrew standpoint. Show him the progression from Hebrew to Greek, to Latin, to English. I didn't say we had to stick with KJV, but address TC's argument.
There have been discussions that request only outside resources be used or only the Bible be used, etc. TC didn't say to only use the KJV, but he did want to discuss the English words and he uses the KJV, so I feel that whatever participants argue needs to address that.
Yes this topic is narrow, but TC is also a new member. This topic is about what TC wants to discuss not what you want to discuss.
If and when TC returns, the discussion may broaden, but I feel that should be his choice.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 296 by arachnophilia, posted 06-11-2006 12:29 PM arachnophilia has not replied

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