Perhaps Doherty simply used the phrase "a man who was God" to refer to the idea that most Chirstians hold of Jesus. He then proceeds to talk about Mark, because Mark is the earliest Gospel we know about.
That Mark himself might not explicitly refer to Jesus as "God" is of course irrelevant (god, I'm using that word a lot lately). Most Christians think of Jesus as "God" and most (if not all) Christians know (or should know) that Mark is the earliest of the Gospels.
{ABE}:So, what I am saying: "A man who was God" is a poetic way of saying "Jesus". And really, can we object to poetic (but not inaccurate, given the bigger picture) language?
Edited by Huntard, : Clarification