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Author Topic:   Gödel, Tarski, & Logic. (for grace2u)
crashfrog
Member (Idle past 1497 days)
Posts: 19762
From: Silver Spring, MD
Joined: 03-20-2003


Message 7 of 22 (67863)
11-19-2003 10:32 PM
Reply to: Message 6 by grace2u
11-19-2003 10:21 PM


They are in a sense a radiant property of this God.
So, if logic is to be taken as a reflection of the character of God, can we then conclude that, like logic, God is inconsistent and incomplete?
If we are not both presupposing the same laws of reason(logic)-if you do contend this, how is it possible for either of us to even begin to communicate our point to the other?
You've agreed to use the same language. How could you communicate with each other if English isn't a fundamental law of the universe?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 6 by grace2u, posted 11-19-2003 10:21 PM grace2u has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 8 by Brad McFall, posted 11-19-2003 10:57 PM crashfrog has not replied
 Message 10 by grace2u, posted 11-20-2003 12:01 AM crashfrog has replied
 Message 14 by Rrhain, posted 11-20-2003 3:44 AM crashfrog has replied

  
crashfrog
Member (Idle past 1497 days)
Posts: 19762
From: Silver Spring, MD
Joined: 03-20-2003


Message 16 of 22 (67930)
11-20-2003 9:08 AM
Reply to: Message 14 by Rrhain
11-20-2003 3:44 AM


OR, crash. God is inconsistent OR incomplete. The two are just different ways of saying the same thing.
If they're saying the same thing, why use "or"? I wouldn't say "rich or thick" when referring to whipped cream. I wouldn't call God "all-powerful or omnipotent".
Would it have simply been better to pick one of those terms, instead of both? My bad.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 14 by Rrhain, posted 11-20-2003 3:44 AM Rrhain has replied

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 Message 20 by Rrhain, posted 11-21-2003 3:25 AM crashfrog has not replied

  
crashfrog
Member (Idle past 1497 days)
Posts: 19762
From: Silver Spring, MD
Joined: 03-20-2003


Message 17 of 22 (67932)
11-20-2003 9:17 AM
Reply to: Message 10 by grace2u
11-20-2003 12:01 AM


Because the man described laws of logic appear to be inconsistent in some cases or incomplete in others(or rather in their aplication to mathematics at times) certainly doesn't imply that the universal laws are similar.
In this case, I think it does. Though I'm obviously no mathematician, Godel's proof seems to me to imply that axiomatic systems are not incomplete because they're weak or incapable - they're incomplete as a result of being strong enough to model number theory. That is, axiomatic systems don't become incomplete until they've reached a sufficient level of power and complexity.
Now obviously the universe's logic cannot be weaker than our logic. Therefore we know that the universe's logic must be incomplete as well, not because it is weak, but because it is strong.
Now, how could your perfect god radiate such imperfect logic? Now, you may think that god's logic is not incomplete, but if it isn't, it can't model number theory. That's pretty weak, don't you think? Why would god have weaker logic than we do?

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