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Author Topic:   Could mainstream christianity ever make peace with gay people?
iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 189 of 263 (460080)
03-12-2008 3:20 PM
Reply to: Message 187 by ICANT
03-12-2008 3:14 PM


Re: Re-Success
ICANT writes:
Why do I have to interpet the following passage to get the idea God thinks sex between man and man is wrong?
Levi 20:13 (KJV) If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.
Because 'lie' might mean the telling of untruths - unless you interpret lie to mean have sex?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 187 by ICANT, posted 03-12-2008 3:14 PM ICANT has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 191 by ICANT, posted 03-12-2008 4:27 PM iano has not replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 190 of 263 (460081)
03-12-2008 3:32 PM
Reply to: Message 188 by PMOC
03-12-2008 3:20 PM


PMOC writes:
I think this concisely highlights our disagreement. I think "I don't have a choice." is a copout. I think we all have a choice to believe what we want.
To believe that black is white? It would seem that there are some things that aren't a matter of choice. If God made himself known to you in a way that was intended to result in you believing he exists then you wouldn't have a choice to believe what you like. You would believe what he intended you believe.
To me, your first statement reads something like: "My choice to interpret the bible as the word of god means i have no choice but to interpret the bible as the word of god." They are the same statement, it doesnt matter which order you think they are in, it absolutely is a dodge and a copout.
I don't interpret the Bible as being the word of God. I believe the Bible is the word of God without my choosing to believe so. Thereafter I chose the system of interpretation I do and certain things roll off the conveyor belt - one of them being that homosex is a sin.

This message is a reply to:
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iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 206 of 263 (460175)
03-13-2008 7:03 AM
Reply to: Message 198 by Rrhain
03-13-2008 1:07 AM


If everyone is a "sinner," then "sinner" doesn't mean anything. Something that explains everything actually explains nothing.
Everyone is a human being. Everyone is an air breather. Everyone is a warm blooded mammal. Everyone is a sinner. I'm not sure I follow your thinking
Incorrect. I seem to be under the impression that you are not able to apply what the Bible says (whatever its origin) to anybody. To do so is judgement.
That impression is gleaned from your own interpretation of the Bible I presume. And if it's incorrect?
If I am not to do so then how am I meant to judge the meaning of the mote/plank passage?
Exactly as I have been saying: Worry about yourself. You are in no position to say one word about the actions of others. You have your own problems to deal with. You need to stop seeking the glory of man and start seeking the glory of god.
I think you misunderstand what the dilemma is.
If I accept and apply your interpretation of the mote/plank passage then I am still judging the passage - whereas you seem to be insisting that I should not judge the passage.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 198 by Rrhain, posted 03-13-2008 1:07 AM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 213 by Rrhain, posted 03-14-2008 4:52 AM iano has replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 207 of 263 (460177)
03-13-2008 7:33 AM
Reply to: Message 205 by Rrhain
03-13-2008 2:15 AM


Rrhain writes:
If everything is X, then nothing is Y and it is useless to try and distinguish X from Y because there is nothing that is Y.
Jesus

This message is a reply to:
 Message 205 by Rrhain, posted 03-13-2008 2:15 AM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
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iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 208 of 263 (460178)
03-13-2008 7:43 AM
Reply to: Message 205 by Rrhain
03-13-2008 2:15 AM


If everyone's a sinner, then it doesn't matter what anybody does because there is no way not to be a sinner
If I may press the "pause" button on your not permitting me to interpret the Bible.. for a moment.
To be a sinner basically means your nature is geared towards sinning. It doesn't mean that it doesn't matter what you do. If every sin is going to be judged and punished according to law then it matters very much what you do. Hell might be hell. But that doesn't mean there aren't shades of torment.
Then there's the Christian. Their sinful nature has been destroyed - meaning that they are not geared towards sinning in the same way a sinful natured person is. They will sin, but technically and in relation to judgement and Hell, things have shifted. They will likely refer to themselves as sinners all the same.
There is one sure way not to be a sinner anymore. And that's die a Christian.
Edited by iano, : Add rider regarding Christians being sinners but not sinners. If you know what I mean..

This message is a reply to:
 Message 205 by Rrhain, posted 03-13-2008 2:15 AM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 215 by Rrhain, posted 03-14-2008 5:07 AM iano has replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 212 of 263 (460273)
03-13-2008 8:09 PM
Reply to: Message 201 by Rrhain
03-13-2008 1:43 AM


Silent H writes:
You cannot make out that Iano is errant in his interpretation of english Biblical scripture
Rrhain writes:
But it isn't my burden of proof. It's his. He's the one making the claim.
Proclaiming would be a better way to put it.
As mentioned to you already, I could attach the rider "according to a) my belief that the Bible is Gods word and b) my interpretation of that word" ...after statements like "homosex is sinful".
But I assume people around here would figure that out for themselves - and so I don't generally attach such riders.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 201 by Rrhain, posted 03-13-2008 1:43 AM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 217 by Rrhain, posted 03-14-2008 5:39 AM iano has replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 218 of 263 (460324)
03-14-2008 7:22 AM
Reply to: Message 217 by Rrhain
03-14-2008 5:39 AM


But "interpretation" is judgement and you are specifically admonished not to judge.
Which also means I can't interpret the mote and plank passage the way you suggest. So why do you keep posing the mote and plank passage as if I'm supposed to interpret it the way you suggest - if I'm not allowed to interpret?
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 217 by Rrhain, posted 03-14-2008 5:39 AM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
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iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 219 of 263 (460327)
03-14-2008 7:43 AM
Reply to: Message 213 by Rrhain
03-14-2008 4:52 AM


Rrhain writes:
"Judgement" as in "comprehension of language to determine a linguistic meaning" is not the same as "judgement" as in "determination of good and evil."
I'm not determining good and evil. I'm stating that a person is engaging in something that is sinful - linguistically meaningfully I mean. That sin is defined as evil - linguistically meaningfully I mean, means that I can say homosex is evil. I'm not determining that it is - God is. I'm just reporting on that fact (assuming my language comprehension judgement is on target)
It is not for you to determine if anybody else is sinning. Only god can do that. You can certainly comprehend the concept of sin, but it is not for you to tell anybody else if they are or are not sinning for that requires the ability to judge which is strictly forbidden to you.
You apparently permit me to judge the meaning of words linguistically. That homosex falls under the category of activities deemed sinful is acceptable judgement in that case. I don't determine that someone else sins. They tell me that they do.
Since everyone is a human being, what does that distinction tell us about "human beingness"? Absolutely nothing. The only way to understand what that means is to compare a "human being" to something that is not a "human being."
If there is no distinction, we have learned nothing.
So go compare humans to non-humans. Or warm blooded creatures with non warm-blooded creatures. Or sinners with non-sinners. I've already told you the basis on which I state everyone a sinner. a)they are human b) they are not Christ.
So go look at Christ.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 213 by Rrhain, posted 03-14-2008 4:52 AM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 223 by Rrhain, posted 03-16-2008 11:49 AM iano has replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 220 of 263 (460343)
03-14-2008 9:41 AM
Reply to: Message 215 by Rrhain
03-14-2008 5:07 AM


But if everyone's a sinner, then there is no way not to sin. Thus, it doesn't matter what you do. If we were to follow a person through their life and at every point of choice, follow each path, then the statement that everyone is a sinner means that it doesn't matter which path you follow: There is no winning solution.
There are ways not to sin. But there is no way not to sin at all. Sinners might not sin at every turn but they will sin as some turn or other.
You are right in there being no winning solution. Which is why God provided a saviour in Jesus Christ.
Thus, since there is no way to win, it doesn't matter what you do.
Shades of torment?
But you've said all sin is equivalent, not one is worse than the other. Therefore, there are no "shades of torment."
I'm not sure I said that but even if I did and sin x was equivilent to sin y then you are still left with the issue of quantity of sin
If x equivilent to y then 10x cannot be equivilent to y
Shades of torment
Their sinful nature has been destroyed
But everyone's a sinner. Therefore, it is impossible for the "sinful nature" to be destroyed.
Au contraire. When the sinful nature is destroyed, the Christian finds his new sin-hating nature at war with his sin loving flesh. From time to time (or even a lot of the time) sinful flesh will win out resulting in the Christian sinning (for anyone who commits sin is a sinner). There is nothing to be terminally alarmed about seeing as death with result in the Christian pressing the eject button on his sinful flesh.
Contrast that with the undestroyed sin-nature possessed by a non-Christian. That nature loves sin and wars with God who works to restrain the sin nature. When the sin nature wins out sin results. There is something to be worried about in this case. Anyone found in possession of an undestroyed sin nature on the day of Judgement is condemned to Hell.
Besides, you just said everybody is a sinner. That means Christians, too. Which is it?
As I stated before, everyone who is
a) human
b) not Christ
....are sinners. That means the lost sinner and the found sinner are sinners. That there is all the difference in the world between them in respect of why they sin, it doesn't alter the fact that they are both sinners.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 215 by Rrhain, posted 03-14-2008 5:07 AM Rrhain has not replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 225 of 263 (460547)
03-16-2008 2:02 PM
Reply to: Message 223 by Rrhain
03-16-2008 11:49 AM


Rrhain writes:
How do you know that "a person is engaging in something that is sinful"? Who are you to make that judgement?
It takes but three steps.
1)I judge their self-reported actions to be sinful in "linguistically meaningful" fashion.
2)I then judge Bible to tell me "linguistically meaningfully" that God is the one who determines certain actions to be sinful.
3)I add my belief that the Bible is the word of God.
The above steps render me believing that homosex (for example) is sinful. Given that you don't appear to apply mote/plank thinking to "linguistically meaningful" judgements, could you tell me where the problem lies for you?
-
It is not for you to determine if anybody else is sinning. Only god can do that. You can certainly comprehend the concept of sin, but it is not for you to tell anybody else if they are or are not sinning for that requires the ability to judge which is strictly forbidden to you.
The above 3 steps should make things clear. All revolves around your still holding this view...
quote:
Rrhain said: "Judgement" as in "comprehension of language to determine a linguistic meaning" is not the same as "judgement" as in "determination of good and evil."
-
iano writes:
That homosex falls under the category of activities deemed sinful
Rrhain writes:
Since when? There's nothing in the Bible about it. Certainly not as we understand the term.
We would differ linguistically meaningfully on that and I have no interest in debating interpretations with you. Suffice to say I judge the Bible to condemn homosex - in a linguistically meaningfully way.
-
Why? You're the one that said everyone is a sinner. Therefore, there is no other category. You cannot find any person who is not a sinner, by your standard.
For some reason you actually quoted my standard in the same post. It is this:
I've already told you the basis on which I state everyone a sinner. a)they are human b) they are not Christ.
It is clear from this standard that you can find someone who is not a sinner to compare sinners with.
-
But Christ was human. Therefore, he was a sinner.
According to your standard perhaps. Clearly not according to mine.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 223 by Rrhain, posted 03-16-2008 11:49 AM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 228 by Rrhain, posted 03-24-2008 10:52 PM iano has replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 227 of 263 (460552)
03-16-2008 2:52 PM
Reply to: Message 226 by Silent H
03-16-2008 2:08 PM


Silent H writes:
Perhaps its easiest to put it this way, sex for pleasure is a sin..
Thank God for alternative interpretations.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 226 by Silent H, posted 03-16-2008 2:08 PM Silent H has not replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 230 of 263 (461383)
03-25-2008 6:33 AM
Reply to: Message 228 by Rrhain
03-24-2008 10:52 PM


iano writes:
I judge their self-reported actions to be sinful in "linguistically meaningful" fashion.
Rrhain writes:
And if they say it isn't sinning?
I can't see that it matters much to the issue at hand - Which is how I arrive at stating homosex sinful. No objection to Step 1?
-
I then judge Bible to tell me "linguistically meaningfully" that God is the one who determines certain actions to be sinful.
But then it isn't you. It's god. Again, how do you know? Your own book tells you that you don't, that you can't, that you are in no position to do so and if you attempt to do so, you'll fail tremendously. So why do you spend so much time worried about it? Why are you not more concerned with your own actions? Your book even tries to advise you about that: How can you remove the mote in your brother's eye when there is a great plank in your own?
Whoa!
The sentence starts out with "I judge.." so it is me judging that God determines certain things. The judgement is a [i]linguistically meaningful[i] one and not, according to you, a mote/plank kind of judgement. No objection to Step 2?
-
You missed out Step 3 which is the bit where I say that "I believe the Bible to be the word of God". You don't register an objection there either.
-
The above steps render me believing that homosex (for example) is sinful.
Even though the Bible never says so?
I think it does, but like I say, I have no interest in debating the linguistic meanings I draw from the Bible with you. The issue is how I arrive at stating people sinners and that involves the linguistic meaning I draw from the Bible. Not the linguistic meaning you draw from it.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 228 by Rrhain, posted 03-24-2008 10:52 PM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 234 by Rrhain, posted 03-29-2008 3:45 AM iano has replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 231 of 263 (461384)
03-25-2008 6:35 AM
Reply to: Message 228 by Rrhain
03-24-2008 10:52 PM


double post
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

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iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 236 of 263 (461993)
03-29-2008 7:59 AM
Reply to: Message 234 by Rrhain
03-29-2008 3:45 AM


It's the entire point of the discussion, friend. You have made a judgement. They have made the opposite one.
So? The basis on which I say homosex is sinful doesn't refer in anyway to how others judge. I thought you were objecting to the basis on which I state homosex sinful.
-
Incorrect. Big objection to Step 1.
And that objection is?
-
But you don't have that right. Who are you to tell god what to do?
No right to judge (in linguistically meaningful fashion) what the Bible says God has decided is sinful?
Could you explain how my judging the linguistic meaning of the Bible is "telling God what to do"?
-
Incorrect. Big objection to Step 2.
It would be helpful if you could quote the step and tie your objection to it.
-
You can believe whatever you wish. This isn't about your beliefs. It's about your judgements. That you base your beliefs upon your judgements isn't the problem. It's the judgements that you have made that are the problem.
Okay. That narrows things down a bit.
-
Note: I am assuming you "believe" the Bible. Therefore, I assume that you "believe" that you are not supposed to make judgements. But then you immediately turn around and make them.
Earlier you said this...
quote:
"Judgement" as in "comprehension of language to determine a linguistic meaning" is not the same as "judgement" as in "determination of good and evil."
I understand the Bible to frown on judgements involving the latter of the two kinds of judgement you describe above (for logical reasons).
It doesn't appear to condemn the former kind of judgement (for logical reasons). The former kind of judgement is the judgement involved in steps 1 and 2.
-
I have no interest in debating the linguistic meanings I draw from the Bible with you.
But that's the entire point. The Bible doesn't say what you think it says and yet you seem to think you have the right to make declarations about god's opinion. That's judgement.
I think the Bible does say what I think it says. And that is the basis for my stating that homosex is sinful. The only judgement involved islinguistic meaningful judgement - which is not mote/plank territory
I do think I have the right to express my opinion on what I think God thinks.
Are we done?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 234 by Rrhain, posted 03-29-2008 3:45 AM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 238 by Rrhain, posted 03-29-2008 8:26 PM iano has replied

  
iano
Member (Idle past 1970 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 240 of 263 (462051)
03-29-2008 9:42 PM
Reply to: Message 238 by Rrhain
03-29-2008 8:26 PM


The basis on which I say homosex is sinful doesn't refer in anyway to how others judge.
Irrelevant. This isn't about them. It's about YOU. YOU are the one that made the judgement.
What's irrelevant? The fact that the basis of my saying what I say is not about them but about me? Not only is that relevant but er..that point is mine. One made in reponse to you introducing them. Get your own points will you?
-
You are in no position to judge anything. Therefore, big objection to Step 1.
I can't see what would stop me judging things on a linguistically meaningfully basis: the ability to read puts me in a postion to do so.
Certainly nothing in the Bible prevents me doing so - indeed, I would need to utilise judgements as to linguistic meaning in order to glean anything the Bible says (or to glean what your posts say).
-
Because the text literally does not say what you think it says. There are no passages in the Bible referring to homosexuality
I judge that there are. You judge that there are not. But that is not the issue. The issue has to do with you saying I am not permitted to judge linguistically meaningfully - for that would be mote/plank.
-
Don't play dumb. I have already answered this. Do you need me to repeat it?
Your understanding of god does not give you the right to tell anybody else if what they are doing is sinful. And that is what you are doing. Ergo, big objection to Step 2.
Another example of not dealing with the point. Step 2 doesn't involve rights. It involves how I come to concluding as I do. The right to tell someone they are sinning arises out of rights involving free speech within the strictures imposed by the forum rules. If Percy removed those rights then I wouldn't have the right.
If you'd done as I asked and placed your objection to step 2 under a quote of step 2 then it would be easier for you to see whether you have an actual objection to it. You tend to object to things other than the steps I've given.
-
I understand the Bible to frown on judgements involving the latter of the two kinds of judgement you describe above (for logical reasons).
But there is nothing in the Bible referring to the topic at hand. Therefore, where do you get off making any sort of claim as to what god thinks?
You quote one point of mine and respond with an unrelated point. I'm going to have to insist you tighten things up Rrhain. As already mentioned, I'm not getting into the relative merits of this or that linguistic meaning with you. Sorry.
-
But if you truly believed the Bible, then you have absolutely no right to ever say anything about what god thinks. That is judgement. You are not god. You have absolutely no idea what god thinks or wants.
I truly believe the Bible and nothing that I see in it prevents me from saying what I believe God thinks. I've got your word for it but am not inclined to accept that.
Arriving at a belief about what God thinks involves the 3 steps outlined and I am eager to hear specific objections to step 1 and 2 (3 being already accepted by you).
I would be particularily keen to hear from you how you propose to eliminate my right to arrive at linguistic meaning (central to steps 1 and 2) without sawing the legs off your own right to do the same.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.
Edited by iano, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 238 by Rrhain, posted 03-29-2008 8:26 PM Rrhain has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 242 by Rrhain, posted 04-02-2008 3:00 AM iano has replied

  
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