I've been following a bit...
Now, if you were to ask a paedophile how long he's had these sexual feelings towards pre-pubscent boys or girls, he may say that he's always "felt" that way. So if I ask you how you know that is either true or untrue, or whether or not its a justification, you saying that I'm equivocating is the last thing I wanna hear. Because for starters, you aren't even answering a legitimate question, and secondly you are manipulating what I'm saying.
I'm afraid you ARE equivocating.
Is there any difference between a sanctioned boxing match and someone beating you senseless on the street?
One scenario involves two CONSENSUAL ADULTS - you wilfully ignore this point time and time again - and the other does not. When you purposely conflate the two you are implying that both are deviant behaviors.
There is absolutely nothing - save for a mythical book and your heebie jeebies - that separates the consenual act of sex amongst same sex partners and the same act between opposite partners.