Peanut Gallery 2012

True, but that position would be inconsistent with the OP's stated belief. Yes, and such a question only makes sense if God wrote the Bible. The question would not have much meaning if men wrote the Bible. Yes there are some other aspects of the original posts that ask different questions.I doubt there is a single poster here who believes that God literally wrote the Bible and described a literal global flood that never happened. Yet according to you, we can only answer exactly OP's question from that position. I doubt that FY has encountered anyone like that here.The title of the OP was the actual question asked in the previous thread. I note that the OP's own participation in the thread seems to touch on the title. But what would be the point of starting a thread because your original question was off topic, and then making the discussion of your original question off topic again?

I'll try again. Emphasis in the quote below added by me. Your interpretation above includes the idea that there is fiction in the Bible and that God did it. My response is that nobody takes the position you've laid out. Everyone who believes that the Bible inaccurately describes Egyptian history, for example, believes that men are responsible for the deviation from accuracy. Yet you are insisting that not responding directly from that position that God wrote the Bible is off topic.I find that insistence wrong headed.

That does seem forced. But I sincerely doubt that any poster that FY has encountered has advanced any such explanation.In any event, I think you've adequately dealt with my statement that nobody takes the position PD describes. I just don't think any here has used or would buy Origen's argument.

Are all killings of humans defined as murder? A biological basis that compelled rape would eliminate the evil, but rape simply having a biological component would not necessarily eliminate the evil. I would suggest that before asserting that the case has been made that you do read the article. I'll point out again that we are talking about slavery as described in the Bible verses I cited. I don't see any excuse or anything moral about owning a person in the way described in those verses. If you do, I'm willing to hear your description of how it is moral.Edited by NoNukes, : No reason given.