Nemesis Juggernaut said:
Which is it? Did they see the light, but not hear the voice, or did they hear the voice, but see the light?
If you are a diehard biblical literalist and ascribe to the latter definition of Biblical Inerrancy, I would say this presents a significant problem.
Anyone know how to reconcile this?
Well, I take somethings in Scripture as literal and some not. Here I see no contradiction.
1) And the men which journeyed with him stood speechless, hearing a voice, but seeing no man. (Acts 9:7) KJV
2) And they that were with me saw indeed the light, and were afraid; but they heard not the voice of him that spake to me. (Acts 22:9) KJV
1) The men hear A voice but see no man.
2) The men saw the light but they didn't hear the voice of the Lord.
1) 9:7 says, the men hear A voice but see no man. It doesn't mention any light.
2) 22:9 says, the men saw the light but did not hear the voice of the Lord.
Where's the contradiction?
™ Version 4.2