The problem is summarized with the following question.
When God pronounces a prophecy, He:
1) "Sees" the future, without compelling the happenings to fit the prophetic model (highlighting his foreseeing capability) or..
2) He controls and guides all the happenings so they will fit the prophetic model (highlighting his almightiness capability).
Neither and both in part. God simply conveys through the prophet what He has already planned and therefore knows will come about in the future. He sees the future as clearly as the past and present. He doesn't have to make anything fit, compel anything whatever, He is merely telling us what He knows is going to happen, and that's because He both "knows the end from the beginning" and "purposes" to do it.
Isaiah 46:8-11 Remember this, and show yourselves men: bring [it] again to mind, O you transgressors. Remember the former things of old: for I [am] God, and [there is] none else; [I am] God, and [there is] none like me, Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times [the things] that are not [yet] done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure: Calling a ravenous bird from the east, the man that executes my counsel from a far country: yea, I have spoken [it], I will also bring it to pass; I have purposed [it], I will also do it.
This message has been edited by Faith, 05-25-2005 03:22 AM
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