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Author Topic:   So I heard that a "Day" is actually translated "period [of time]"
ICANT
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Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.7


Message 12 of 50 (488475)
11-11-2008 7:48 PM
Reply to: Message 1 by Keysle
11-02-2008 7:31 PM


Re-Time
Hi Keysle,
Welcome to KvC.
Keysle writes:
If that's the case then the earth might not have been created several thousands of years ago...
And when does the days/periods mentioned in the beginning (i'm talking about the bible) parallel with when God tells that one guy that one of God's days is like a 1000 of mans' years.
If people could read and understand English I don't think there would be a problem with the thousand year day because it does not exist.
Peter says:
2Pet 3:8 (KJV) But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day.
God is eternal and is therefore not limited to time as we are.
This verse does not say: One day is a thousand years with the Lord.
Nor does it say: A thousand years is one day with the Lord.
It does say: One day is "AS" a thousand years with the Lord.
It also says: A thousand years is "AS" one day with the Lord.
Because God is eternal He has no yesterday and no tomorrow.
God only has a great big "NOW".
So any comparison to this verse to determine the length of a day is futile.
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 1 by Keysle, posted 11-02-2008 7:31 PM Keysle has not replied

  
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.7


Message 17 of 50 (488508)
11-12-2008 10:42 AM
Reply to: Message 16 by Syamsu
11-12-2008 10:04 AM


Re-Understanding the Bible
Hi Syamsu,
Syamsu writes:
But as before this depends on an interpretation of "day" in terms of decisions. To be fair this interpretation must also be within common knowledge, otherwise most people could not understand the bible.
Why must anything about the Bible be within common knowledge?
Jesus taught in parable's because it was not given that everyone should know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven. Matt. 13:10-15.
People do not understand the Bible because:
1Cor 2:14 (KJV) But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
They must be born again of the Holy Spirit and led by Him to be able to understand the Bible.
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 16 by Syamsu, posted 11-12-2008 10:04 AM Syamsu has not replied

  
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.7


Message 19 of 50 (488513)
11-12-2008 12:06 PM
Reply to: Message 18 by autumnman
11-12-2008 11:38 AM


Re: Gen 1:1 thru 2:3 'Yom'
Hi autumnman,
autumnman writes:
Then Gen. 1:5 concludes: “And there was evening and there was morning, the first day.”
“Evening and morning” also do not constitute a 24-hour day. If the text stated evening to evening or morning to morning this would have indicated a 24-hour day, but the text does not state that concept. Regarding the author’s use of “evening ... morning",
I am glad you notice that there was a light period missing from the first day.
If you will check from the morning mentioned in verse 5 there was there was an evening 12 hours and a morning 12 for the second, third,
fourth, fifth, and sixth day.
Could that light period missing from day one be the eternal light period from Genesis 1:1 until we find the earth in the condition it was in, in Genesis 1:2?
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 18 by autumnman, posted 11-12-2008 11:38 AM autumnman has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 20 by autumnman, posted 11-12-2008 1:04 PM ICANT has replied

  
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.7


Message 22 of 50 (488533)
11-12-2008 2:44 PM
Reply to: Message 20 by autumnman
11-12-2008 1:04 PM


Re: Gen 1:1
Hi autumnman,
autumnman writes:
I understand Gen. 1:1 to be a ”Title Verse’, and as such is not denoting a “Creation Account”.
Why would that be a title verse as no other book in the Bible has a title verse?
Genesis 1:1 is not a "Creation Account". It is a declaration of God creating the heaven and the earth.
The "Creation Account" is given in Genesis 2:4 through Genesis 4:26.
I don't know what they are teaching as Hebrew today but when I studied Hebrew Genesis 1:1 was a declaratrive statement.
A declarative sentence or declaration is the most common sentence in the English language.
Examining Genesis 1:1.
In the beginning. When the event took place.
God. The one preforming the event.
Created the heaven and the earth. Event that took place.
This took place prior to the evening in Genesis 1:5.
There is nothing in there that hints this was a title of the Book.
autumnman writes:
Gen. 2:1 is a ”Conclusion Verse’, and also does not denote a “Creation Account.”
Genesis 2:1 Declares the heavens and earth to be complete, nothing lacking.
This takes place in the morning ending the 6th day.
The seventh day God did not have anything left to create, So He ‘ ceased (word translated rested) from His work of creating.
Did you ever wonder why the word ‘ is used in Genesis 1:1 and the word is used in Genesis 1:16?
For the benefit of others the first word ‘ is translated created.
The word is translated made.
So the sun and moon was not brought into existence on the 4th day or the word ‘ would have been used in Genesis 1:16.
autumnman writes:
Since the terms “evening ... morning” are in fact “inappropriate” in a literal sense,
But if you take into account of Genesis 1:1 taking place in the light part of the first day the evening of that light period and the night portion completes the first day as declared by God.
So in the literal sense it makes perfect sense.
autumnman writes:
Do you see what I am driving at?
Sure. You believe Genesis is a figurative/metaphorical account.
I just disagree as I believe it is a litteral account of what happened as it claims to be.
I believe the first day started with a period of light and ended with 12 hours of darkness. The evening and the morning were the first day. Gen. 1:5
I believe the following 5 days mentioned consisted of a light period and a dark period that took almost 24 hours to complete just as it does today.
God ceased creating on the morning of the end of the 6th day.
I believe God is still not creating and will not until He creates a New Heaven and a New Earth. Revelation 21:1.
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 20 by autumnman, posted 11-12-2008 1:04 PM autumnman has not replied

  
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.7


Message 25 of 50 (488594)
11-13-2008 12:09 PM
Reply to: Message 23 by autumnman
11-12-2008 9:30 PM


Re: Gen 1:1 thru 2:3 'Yom'
Hi autumnman,
autumnman writes:
I am attempting to pay attention to the text,
The text says:
Genesis 1:2 darkness was upon the face of the deep.
Genesis 1:3 And God said, Let there be light: and there was light.
Genesis 1:4 God divided the light from the darkness.
Genesis 1:5 the evening and the morning were the first day.
Since it was evening I will guess that Genesis 1:1 took place in the light portion of the first day.
Because after the dark portion it was morning the end of the first day.
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 23 by autumnman, posted 11-12-2008 9:30 PM autumnman has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 27 by autumnman, posted 11-13-2008 1:06 PM ICANT has not replied

  
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.7


Message 36 of 50 (488667)
11-14-2008 3:14 PM
Reply to: Message 34 by autumnman
11-14-2008 12:32 PM


Re: Six fundamental questions.
Hi autumnman,
Concerning your questions I am not a mind reader and unable to determine what the author may or may not have meant. But the words used have specific meanings.
autumnman writes:
What does the author mean in Gen. 1:2 when he writes, “and the earth was formless and void”?
Formless is not used. "Without form is used".
Hebrew was translated "without form".
The definition of is:
1) formlessness, confusion, unreality, emptiness
a) formlessness
b) that which is empty
c) wasteland, wilderness (of solitary places)
d) place of chaos
e) vanity
and void
Hebrew ‘ is translated "void".
The definition of ‘ is:
1) emptiness, void, waste
autumnman writes:
What is “the deep” and the “water” the author describes in Gen. 1:2?
Hebrew is translated "the deep".
The definition of is:
1) deep, depths, deep places, abyss, the deep, sea
a) deep (of subterranean waters)
b) deep, sea, abysses (of sea)
c) primeval ocean, deep
d) deep, depth (of river)
autumnman writes:
The author writes in Gen. 1:3, “Then God said, ”Let there be light’; and there was light.” What is this “light” that the author is describing?
Hebrew is translated "let there be".
The definition of is:
1) to be, become, come to pass, exist, happen,
Hebrew is translated "light".
The definition of is:
1) light
a) light of day
autumnman writes:
In Gen. 1:4 the author states that, “God separated the light from the darkness.” Since “light” by design is “separated” from “darkness”, what might the author be alluding to?
Genesis 1:4 says God "divided" the light from the darkness.
Hebrew ‘— is translated "divided".
The definition of ‘— is:
1) to divide, separate
a) (Hiphil)
1) to divide, separate, sever
2) to separate, set apart
3) to make a distinction, difference
4) to divide into parts
autumnman writes:
In Gen. 1:5 the author describes God calling, “light Day and the darkness he called Night”. Since the “earth” most likely remains “formless and void” and the “sun and moon” have not yet been brought into being, what kind of “Day” and “Night” is the author describing here?
Light is defined above.
Hebrew is translated "day".
The definition of is:
1) day, time, year
a) day (as opposed to night)
b) time, period (general)
Hebrew is translated "darkness".
The definition is:
1) darkness, obscurity
a) dark,
This darkness He called "night".
Hebrew —— is translated "night".
The definition of —— is:
1) night
a) night (as opposed to day)
Hebrew ‘ is translated "and the evening".
The definition of ‘ is:
1) evening, night, sunset
a) evening, sunset
Hebrew ‘ is translated "and the morning".
The definition of ‘ is:
1) morning, break of day
a) morning
1) of end of night
2) of coming of daylight
b) morrow, next day, next morning
Hebrew is translated "were the first day".
The definition of is:
1) one
a) one (number)
b) each, every
c) a certain
Comments:
The first day ended at first light according to Gen. 1:5.
The sun and moon have nothing to do with light and darkness.
Light is mearly an absence of darkness, makes no difference what the source is.
autumnman writes:
Then Gen. 1:5 concludes, “And there was evening and morning, the first day.” According Professor Sarna, “evening ... morning ... terms inappropriate before the creation of the sun on the fourth day” (JPS, Commentary, Genesis, pg. 8).
Professor Sarna has his opinion and others have a different opinion.
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 34 by autumnman, posted 11-14-2008 12:32 PM autumnman has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 37 by autumnman, posted 11-14-2008 5:11 PM ICANT has replied

  
ICANT
Member
Posts: 6769
From: SSC
Joined: 03-12-2007
Member Rating: 1.7


Message 38 of 50 (488671)
11-14-2008 6:12 PM
Reply to: Message 37 by autumnman
11-14-2008 5:11 PM


Re: Six fundamental questions.
Hi autumnman,
Thanks for your comentary.
autumnman writes:
From my own personal perspective...
I perceive
I perceive the author
It is my opinion that at this point
To me it appears as though the author
I hope you can see my problem with the above statements. Everyone is entitled to have an opinion and everyone has one.
I gave no opinions and only gave 2 comments.
I gave the Hebrew words the author used and the definition of that word according to the Analytical Hebrew Chaldee Lexicon.
Now if you have some different Hebrew words and definitions roll them out and put them on the table.
God Bless,

"John 5:39 (KJS) Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me."

This message is a reply to:
 Message 37 by autumnman, posted 11-14-2008 5:11 PM autumnman has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 40 by autumnman, posted 11-14-2008 8:26 PM ICANT has not replied

  
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