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Author Topic:   Matthew 27:9: Quoted from Jeremiah?
Iblis
Member (Idle past 3925 days)
Posts: 663
Joined: 11-17-2005


Message 3 of 74 (280401)
01-20-2006 8:30 PM
Reply to: Message 1 by DeclinetoState
01-20-2006 5:04 PM


Hi, do you want a real solution that works? It's fairly simple, but it leads to some odd conclusions.
The part of "The Book of Zechariah" that is actually internally attributed to the prophet himself ends with chapter 8. The remainder of the Old Testament consists of 3 curious items referred to internally as "burdens" and modeled after some nice items toward the end of Isaiah. The first two are (now) classified as Zechariah 9-11 and 12-14, the third is what we call Malachi. Here are the headers provided at the beginning of each:
9:1 The burden of the word of the LORD in the land of Hadrach, and Damascus shall be the rest thereof: when the eyes of man, as of all the tribes of Israel, shall be toward the LORD.
and
12:1 The burden of the word of the LORD for Israel, saith the LORD, which stretcheth forth the heavens, and layeth the foundation of the earth, and formeth the spirit of man within him.
and finally in Malachi
1:1 The burden of the word of the LORD to Israel by Malachi.
Note that Malachi isn't a real name, it just means "my messenger". Nowhere in the New Testament is the name Malachi used, just for reference.
The fact that we split these up where we do isn't anything to do with the way the original scrolls were, in the Tanakh the entirety of Hosea-Malachi is for example one scroll called "The Prophets". We run into a similar situation in Mark where a quote from one of the burdens, this time from Malachi, is attributed simply to The Prophets:
1:2 As it is written in the prophets, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee.
This case is particularly interesting in that some of our oldest texts actually attribute this burden to the prophet Isaiah. (This might just be a reference to the verse after though.) In the same way, Matthew is attributing the previous burden to Jeremiah. Is he right? You decide.
One thing is certain, none of them were written by Zechariah. Here is what his headers look like:
1:1 In the eighth month, in the second year of Darius, came the word of the LORD unto Zechariah, the son of Berechiah, the son of Iddo the prophet, saying,
and
1:7 Upon the four and twentieth day of the eleventh month, which is the month Sebat, in the second year of Darius, came the word of the LORD unto Zechariah, the son of Berechiah, the son of Iddo the prophet, saying,
and
7:1 And it came to pass in the fourth year of king Darius, that the word of the LORD came unto Zechariah in the fourth day of the ninth month, even in Chisleu; 7:2 When they had sent unto the house of God Sherezer and Regem-melech, and their men, to pray before the LORD, 7:3 And to speak unto the priests which were in the house of the LORD of hosts, and to the prophets, saying,
and
7:8 And the word of the LORD came unto Zechariah, saying,
with subheaders toward the end of each passage introducing the conclusion, like this
6:9 And the word of the LORD came unto me, saying,
and
7:4 Then came the word of the LORD of hosts unto me, saying,
and
8:1 Again the word of the LORD of hosts came to me, saying,
See the difference? Sure you do
Now some fairly weak scholars make it past this leap but then fall into the idea that because these 3 "burdens" are so similar, they are probably all by the same person. (This fictional Malachi perhaps, but hint: no one names their kid "my messenger" if anything they would have named him "messenger of the Lard" = Malachijah; and they didn't).
But there are internal reasons in the way of reference and vocabulary to indicate they were written at different times by different authors. The resemblance between them is in the very rigid literary genre that seems to consitute the "burden" format. Assuming this means they have the same author is like assuming that because Shakespeare and Milton both wrote some sonnets in the same scheme, they are the same guy. Some very weak scholars assert this sort of crap all the time though, so don't be surprised!
Now, does this prove that Matthew is right in attributing burden 1 to Jeremiah? No.
Does it prove that the fact that burden 1 is in a book we call Zechariah means absolutely nothing about the actual authorship? Yes.
* edited for accuracy
This message has been edited by Iblis, 01-20-2006 08:44 PM

This message is a reply to:
 Message 1 by DeclinetoState, posted 01-20-2006 5:04 PM DeclinetoState has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 4 by DeclinetoState, posted 01-26-2006 7:30 PM Iblis has replied

  
Iblis
Member (Idle past 3925 days)
Posts: 663
Joined: 11-17-2005


Message 5 of 74 (281846)
01-26-2006 9:16 PM
Reply to: Message 4 by DeclinetoState
01-26-2006 7:30 PM


DeclineToRead
First of all brother, don't reply to me in the third person, I'm not your pony.
Secondly, I don't think you understand your position at all. You seem to be hunting elephants with a bb-gun, I have noticed this and stepped up, stuck my arm in front of my face like it was a trunk, and effortlessly taken away your weapon. Notice I didn't need to weigh several tons or have giant feet? There are real elephants here! If Faith or Herepton or Buzsaw notices you and finds you annoying enough to reply to you are going to get seriously crushed.
Thirdly, and to your point, arguing that Matthew is unreliable because he attributes the "30 pieces of silver" language from Burden 1, collected into Zechariah, to Jeremiah instead, is like arguing that Geoffrey of Monmouth is unreliable because he attributes the Arthurian battle-list, collected into Nennius, to Gildas. Geoffrey has a copy of a collection that begins with Gildas's work and includes the Nennius material as well, he is being remarkably accurate in making this attribution, comparatively speaking.
In other words, this is about the weakest argument against his reliability that anyone could make! The real reason Geoffrey is unreliable is because he distorts every source he touches and totally disregards the intent of the original authors, to the point of being wildly humorous page after page after page to anyone who understands real history.
He's nothing compared to Matthew though. There are literally hundreds of passages in that gospel which are better examples of unreliable (or at least exceptionally difficult to explain away) usage of the Old Testament. Some on the same page! And this is what you come up with?
I don't think the Marine Corps really has room for you right now, son. Try the Coast Guard station around the corner

This message is a reply to:
 Message 4 by DeclinetoState, posted 01-26-2006 7:30 PM DeclinetoState has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 6 by Brian, posted 01-27-2006 4:59 PM Iblis has replied
 Message 16 by DeclinetoState, posted 01-31-2006 2:13 AM Iblis has replied

  
Iblis
Member (Idle past 3925 days)
Posts: 663
Joined: 11-17-2005


Message 7 of 74 (282090)
01-28-2006 1:49 AM
Reply to: Message 6 by Brian
01-27-2006 4:59 PM


Smart Guy
Right no, not even that sentence, every word of the post is figurative.
You sir are a good reader

This message is a reply to:
 Message 6 by Brian, posted 01-27-2006 4:59 PM Brian has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 8 by Brian, posted 01-28-2006 6:32 AM Iblis has replied

  
Iblis
Member (Idle past 3925 days)
Posts: 663
Joined: 11-17-2005


Message 9 of 74 (282174)
01-28-2006 2:14 PM
Reply to: Message 8 by Brian
01-28-2006 6:32 AM


Matthew 101
Depends what you mean by "errors" really.
There are 53 more distinct citations comparable to this one, each disagrees with the obvious "surface" meaning in context in the original text, each provides words that cannot be accounted for using any existing instance of the original text, and each steps exactly one step over the line set by allowable extensions of the original text in the undisputed opinions delineated in the Mishna as those which have no need for attribution. There are another 47 items classified as "allusions", they represent use of similar Old Testament language to mark points where the Church had departed even further from the Synagogue's standard for messianic expectations and similar enhancements or reinterpretations of the Book. Seen in this context Matthew serves as a very definitive accounting of the differences that had arisen between the two religions over time.
But are those errors? I would not hesitate to assert that the author wrote every word of them quite deliberately. If you actually read them, and compare, and look at which doctrine each is used in support of, and make the judgement that any rational person must make, then the conclusion you will end up coming to is the author's real opinion and you will be very impressed by it. If, on the other hand, you don't care to read and check the facts and so on, you're not a thinking person and just want to believe, well then you also will be happy with the text and very impressed by it. It justifies its variation of interpretations by being very clearly variably-interpretable itself!
Works like that are not made by coincidence.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 8 by Brian, posted 01-28-2006 6:32 AM Brian has not replied

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 Message 10 by arachnophilia, posted 01-28-2006 3:26 PM Iblis has not replied

  
Iblis
Member (Idle past 3925 days)
Posts: 663
Joined: 11-17-2005


Message 18 of 74 (282980)
01-31-2006 7:41 PM
Reply to: Message 16 by DeclinetoState
01-31-2006 2:13 AM


Haha, who's your savior?
I could not offer a better example of the dangers of literalism than Message 16. Are we to have a fist-fight over forced idioms? It's a little too funny, does this whole thread seem somewhat staged to you guys reading?
DeclineToState writes:
Perhaps Iblis is more like Matthew
That was brilliant, mountain dew™ came out my nose and everything, keep up the great work!
In any case, seeing as absolutely nobody is still waiting for the other shoe to drop, here's the climax of the first burden in Zechariah
11:7 And I will feed the flock of slaughter, even you, O poor of the flock. And I took unto me two staves; the one I called Beauty, and the other I called Bands; and I fed the flock. 11:8 Three shepherds also I cut off in one month; and my soul lothed them, and their soul also abhorred me. 11:9 Then said I, I will not feed you: that that dieth, let it die; and that that is to be cut off, let it be cut off; and let the rest eat every one the flesh of another.
11:10 And I took my staff, even Beauty, and cut it asunder, that I might break my covenant which I had made with all the people. 11:11 And it was broken in that day: and so the poor of the flock that waited upon me knew that it was the word of the LORD. 11:12 And I said unto them, If ye think good, give me my price; and if not, forbear. So they weighed for my price thirty pieces of silver. 11:13 And the LORD said unto me, Cast it unto the potter: a goodly price that I was prised at of them. And I took the thirty pieces of silver, and cast them to the potter in the house of the LORD. 11:14 Then I cut asunder mine other staff, even Bands, that I might break the brotherhood between Judah and Israel.
11:15 And the LORD said unto me, Take unto thee yet the instruments of a foolish shepherd. 11:16 For, lo, I will raise up a shepherd in the land, which shall not visit those that be cut off, neither shall seek the young one, nor heal that that is broken, nor feed that that standeth still: but he shall eat the flesh of the fat, and tear their claws in pieces. 11:17 Woe to the idle shepherd that leaveth the flock! the sword shall be upon his arm, and upon his right eye: his arm shall be clean dried up, and his right eye shall be utterly darkened.
Notice what might make some of your classical theologians want to steer clear of this obvious match? Who is speaking in this passage? And what are they saying?
In this burden the coming shepherd or messiah is represented not as a peace-loving hippy nonviolent cheek-turner type, so much as a beauty-defiling flock-starving nation-breaking proponent for the loss of arms and eyes. We'd rather not look at that, huh? "Pay no attention to the man behind the curtain!"
Anyway, follow the money, in Zechariah 11 it's the prophet who plays out the scene, and it's the prophet who receives and disposes of the symbolic coinage.
Here's Matthew's version again in his context
27:3 Then Judas, which had betrayed him, when he saw that he was condemned, repented himself, and brought again the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and elders, 27:4 Saying, I have sinned in that I have betrayed the innocent blood. And they said, What is that to us? see thou to that. 27:5 And he cast down the pieces of silver in the temple, and departed, and went and hanged himself. 27:6 And the chief priests took the silver pieces, and said, It is not lawful for to put them into the treasury, because it is the price of blood. 27:7 And they took counsel, and bought with them the potter’s field, to bury strangers in. 27:8 Wherefore that field was called, The field of blood, unto this day. 27:9 Then was fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremy the prophet, saying, And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value; 27:10 And gave them for the potter’s field, as the Lord appointed me.
Wow, Judas talked though an Old Testament prophet. Or Judas and the messiah were the same guy in the time of "Zechariah" perhaps. Any more clues like that one in the OT, perhaps in oh say Jeremiah's favorite surprise lawbook of "Moses" Deuteronomy?
21:22 And if a man have committed a sin worthy of death, and he be to be put to death, and thou hang him on a tree: 21:23 His body shall not remain all night upon the tree, but thou shalt in any wise bury him that day; (for he that is hanged is accursed of God that thy land be not defiled, which the LORD thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.
Did you see that? I don't make this stuff up you know, here's Paul confirming that this is the sort of thing that is suitable to prove his neo-messianic position to the Galatians
3:10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them. 3:11 But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith. 3:12 And the law is not of faith: but, The man that doeth them shall live in them. 3:13 Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree:
Matthew didn't start this either, Mark does the same thing in a much more open way, he marks his text with insulting views of the original disciples rather than OT references, that's all. Here's his opinion on the 30 pieces of silver
14:10 And Judas Iscariot, one of the twelve, went unto the chief priests, to betray him unto them. 14:11 And when they heard it, they were glad, and promised to give him money. And he sought how he might conveniently betray him.
That's it, no coinage, no hanging, those are all Matthew. Mark's making the same point though, which is that there are people in positions of trust and authority who don't have your best interests at heart at all. Don't be fooled!
Quick review question, Judas is the real what? Zechariah 11:12
* Thanks purpledawn and arachnophilia for this link, it was very informative and entertaining
purpledawn writes:
Here is a link to the article I read.
The Satire According to Matthew
* credit for subtitle to Al Jean in the first episode of the rocking good cartoon series Jesus And His Brothers

This message is a reply to:
 Message 16 by DeclinetoState, posted 01-31-2006 2:13 AM DeclinetoState has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 19 by DeclinetoState, posted 02-01-2006 3:50 AM Iblis has not replied
 Message 20 by purpledawn, posted 02-01-2006 9:21 AM Iblis has replied

  
Iblis
Member (Idle past 3925 days)
Posts: 663
Joined: 11-17-2005


Message 21 of 74 (283500)
02-02-2006 5:43 PM
Reply to: Message 20 by purpledawn
02-01-2006 9:21 AM


Re: Faulty Translation
purpledawn writes:
I've found your posts interesting. I had not heard of the burdens. Is there a site that would explain them more?
Why thank you and sure there is, it is actually pretty standard stuff
Quartz Hill School of Theology
The problem of the unity of Zechariah represents one of the earliest critical problems in Old Testament studies. No serious question was raised against Zechariah's authorship of the entire book until the seventeenth century. Come AD 1638, a certain Cambridge theologian pointed out that Matthew 27:9 quotes Zechariah 11:12 as having been written by Jeremiah rather than Zechariah. The theologian's name was Mede. He decided to depart from the tradition that Zechariah wrote the whole book and wrote "There is reason to suspect that the Holy Spirit (through Matthew) desired to claim three chapters 9, 10, 11 for their real author."
At first Mede denied that Zechariah wrote all of the book on a scriptural basis. He wrote, "There is no scripture sayeth they (chaps. 9-11) are Zachary's, but here is scripture saith they are Jeremy's as this of the evangelists." But Mede did not base his view of Jeremiah's authorship of Zechariah 9-11 on Matthew's reference alone. He also argued on the basis of internal evidence in these chapters that they were earlier than the exilic period. He said, "Certainly, if a man weighs the contents of some of them, they should in likelihood be of an elder date than the time of Zachary, namely, before the captivity, for the subjects of some of them were scarce in being after that time."
Mede's suggestion did not attract attention until 1699 when Richard Kidder, Lord Bishop of Bath and Wells, wrote, "That Jeremy wrote chapter 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, and 14 of Zachary is a very probable opinion. This is certain, that such things are contained in those chapters, as agree with the time of Jeremy, but by no means with that of Zachary, e.g., that the pride of Assyria shall be brought down, and the Septre of Egypt depart, is foretold Zech 10:11. It is well known that this was past in Zachary's time. And tho' Jeremy might, Zachary could not predict this." (Richard Kidder, A Demonstration of the Mesiah I-III. London, 1664, 1700).
So why would these sections by Jeremiah be added to the end of a book by Zechariah? Because Zechariah was the last book of the prophets! Zechariah 9-11, Zechariah 12-14, and Malachi (also three chapters in Hebrew) are each called a masa, "a burden". Most scholars therefore believe that these were three floating and anonymous oracles arbitrarily assigned to their present position in the cannon. The third and last of these was given the title "Malachi" from a word in Malachi 1:1 and 3:1, in order to make twelve minor prophets. It is interesting to note that each of these three sections begins with the exact same phrase: "masa deber Yahweh" -- "A burden of Yahweh".
There's also a substantial review of all the various competing theories and lines of thought, I will use the fairly lucid remarks in the last post by D2s for our example
One common attempt to explain the introduction of Jeremiah's name in place of that of Zechariah in Matthew, is to argue that, so far as the principle features are concerned, this prophesy is simply a resumption of the prophecy of Jeremiah 19, and that Zechariah announces a second fulfillment of this prophecy (Hegstenberg), or that it rests on the prophecy of Jeremiah 18, in which the potter is also introduced, and that its fulfillment goes beyond Zechariah's prophecy, so that Jeremiah 18 and 19 are fulfilled at the same time.
Comparison is also sometimes made to Mark 1:2-3 where Mark states:
It is written in Isaiah the prophet: "I will send my messenger ahead of you, who will prepare your way -- a voice of one calling in the desert, 'Prepare the way for the Lord, make straight paths for him.'"
Here, Mark has quoted from two separate passages in the Old Testament and combined them: Malachi 3:1 and Isaiah 40:3. So, perhaps Matthew, like Mark, quotes from both Zechariah and Jeremiah, and then names only the more prominent of the two prophets.
Unfortunately for this explanation, it works only in abstract; it is difficult, if not impossible, to find even one word in the context of what Matthew attributes to Jeremiah, actually in the book of Jeremiah.
These guys go on to "prove" that Malachi is actually written by Isaiah in order to make their Nestle's Crunch critical text of the NT inerrant as well, I actually prefer to stop well short of that. If a thing is false, simple suggestive logic should be able to disprove it with no trouble at all; but the same methods become unreliable when one attempts to use them to prove anything substantial.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 20 by purpledawn, posted 02-01-2006 9:21 AM purpledawn has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 22 by jaywill, posted 02-09-2006 10:30 PM Iblis has not replied

  
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