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Author Topic:   Biblical Translation--Eden, 2
iano
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 61 of 315 (462128)
03-31-2008 1:30 PM
Reply to: Message 59 by autumnman
03-31-2008 11:47 AM


Re: Biblical Heb. Transliteration Convention
autumnman writes:
I do not agree with your interpretation and/or explanation of the seeming contradiction between Gen. 21:33 and Ex. 6:3. The Heb. source text is quite clear, in Ex. 6:3 the Deity states, “My name YHWH not I make known to Abraham.” Yet in Gen. 21:33 Abraham “proclaimed there with the name YHWH.”
Are you not being a little rigid?
If Adam knew Eve (sexually) does that mean he never met her before he knew her sexually? If the Hebrew word 'know' has shades of meaning (in the area of deepening intimacy), then we might suppose Eve making her body known to Adam (by stepping out from behind a tree) is a different application of the word to her making her body known to Adam (in the form likely to lead to the manufacture of children)
Closer to home. God can make his name Jehovah Jirah known to me in the same sense 007 makes his name known, that is; "Bond, James Bond". He simply states what the case is. Or he can make his name, Jehovah Jirah, known to me whilst incorporating a demonstration of it's meaning.
I would know his name in two different ways. Or if only knowing it in one way, it wouldn't preclude someone else knowing it in another.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 59 by autumnman, posted 03-31-2008 11:47 AM autumnman has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 63 by autumnman, posted 03-31-2008 4:10 PM iano has replied

iano
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 64 of 315 (462151)
03-31-2008 6:15 PM
Reply to: Message 63 by autumnman
03-31-2008 4:10 PM


Re: Biblical Heb. Transliteration Convention
autumnman writes:
I am being “a little rigid” insofar as the contextual meaning of yada0=to know as it is applied in Exodus 6:3, “But My Name YHWH not I make known to [Abraham].” In Ex. 6:3 it is the adverb lo>=not followed by the reflexive perfect verb with the 1st person singular suffix, noda0ethiy=I make known. The adverb and the reflexive perfect verb is in direct relation to what God says at the conclusion of Ex. 6:2, “>aniy yhwh=I am YHWH; which can be directly compared to what God says to Abram in Gen. 15:7, “>aniy yhwh=I am YHWH, and what Abraham proclaims in Gen. 21:33.
I understand and do not contest this.
-
It is clear that God “made known” to Abram/Abraham His name YHWH, and that Abram/Abraham not only knew God’s name, but also knew God in an extremely intimate fashion.
This doesn't really address the point made - which had to do with the ways in which a person can know Gods name. There is the titular end of the spectrum and the experiential end of the spectrum. Different ways of knowing can be encompassed by the same use of words.
Certainly you could insist that the same sense of knowing is involved in both cases - rendering a contradiction. But there is no particular need to do so that I can see.
I agree that Abraham knew God intimately but perhaps Moses knew him more intimately? Beyond this discussion though..

This message is a reply to:
 Message 63 by autumnman, posted 03-31-2008 4:10 PM autumnman has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 65 by autumnman, posted 03-31-2008 8:53 PM iano has replied

iano
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 68 of 315 (462180)
04-01-2008 6:42 AM
Reply to: Message 65 by autumnman
03-31-2008 8:53 PM


Re: Biblical Heb. Transliteration Convention
To interpret beyond the Sacred Scriptures and begin speculating as to the “different ways of knowing” distorts the Sacred Scriptures far more than the seeming contradiction I have brought to your attention.
It's not a matter of interpretation for I am not suggesting what kind of knowing is involved in both cases. What should be apparent is that there are different ways of knowing the same something (and making the same something known) even though the words used are the same.
autumnman writes:
I am not “rendering a contradiction”; the above examples expose an apparent contradiction between Gen. & Ex.
You do say the contradiction is an apparent one and you have indeed shown 100% that there is an apparent contradiction. The question is "where to now?" It would appear that you haven't enough information available to get behind what kind of 'knowing' is referred to in both cases - so the apparent contradiction cannot be rendered an actual one.
Are you speculating that there is only one manner by which Gods name YHWH can be known?

This message is a reply to:
 Message 65 by autumnman, posted 03-31-2008 8:53 PM autumnman has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 69 by Dawn Bertot, posted 04-01-2008 9:53 AM iano has not replied
 Message 82 by autumnman, posted 04-01-2008 5:48 PM iano has replied

iano
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 83 of 315 (462241)
04-01-2008 6:52 PM
Reply to: Message 82 by autumnman
04-01-2008 5:48 PM


Re: Biblical Heb. Transliteration Convention
I understand what you are saying. However, the context of Ex. 6:3 clearly states that God did not make known His NAME, YHWH, to Abraham, Isaac, or Jacob -6:4 even though He established His covenant with Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, giving to them the land of Canaan.
Knowing something is not an issue. The issue is lo>=NOT knowing something.
If you understood what I was saying then you would see it makes little difference. An unbelieving person who knows that God is described as Jehovah Jireh will not know God as Jehovah Jireh experientially. In that case, God can say that he has not made himself known as Jehovah Jireh (experientially). It doesn't alter the person knowing him as Jehovah Jireh (descriptively). Neither you nor I have the luxury of the words in brackets with which to clarify whether the apparent contradiction is one in fact based on this limited text alone.
-
From my personal perspective “the apparent contradiction” between Gen. & Ex. will always be an “apparent contradiction”. It is apparent to me, but not so apparent to you, even though you say, I have “shown 100% that there is an apparent contradiction.” When and if you ever can reach the conclusion that “the apparent contradiction” is fully apparent to you as well, then it will be an “apparent contradiction” to you also. If you and others can convince me that what I consider an “apparent contradiction” is not a contradiction at all {which I am completely open to} then I too will not perceive there to be a contradiction between Gen. and Ex.
I was using the sense of the word apparent given below. I thought it would be apparent that this was the sense I intended. But apparently not .
quote:
3. Appearing as such but not necessarily so; seeming: an apparent advantage
A contradiction at first flush. But not necessarily so. That is how I meant it.
-
Are you speculating that there is only one manner by which Gods name YHWH can be known?
Absolutely not, but, again, “knowing something” is not the issue. lo>=NOT “knowing” something is the issue.
If accepting it possible not to know Gods name in one fashion whilst at the same time knowing it in another then where is the problem? All God said what that his name wasn't made known. He didn't say in what fashion is wasn't made known.
-
It will never be an “actual contradiction” until everyone agrees that there is an “apparent contradiction.” When do you think that will happen?
I remember a discussion here (unto blue-in-the-face) about this apparent contradiction:
quote:
Pro 26:4 Answer not a fool according to his folly, lest thou also be like unto him.
Pro 26:5 Answer a fool according to his folly, lest he be wise in his own conceit.
Do I answer the fool or not? Seems like a catch 22. The apparent contradiction is resolved when you use different possible senses of the word 'according'. Just like I am arguing here for the word "know". The alternative is to insist on exact same sense and hold the apparent* contradiction.. er ..apparent**.
(* = my sense of the word apparent. ** = your sense of the word apparent)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 82 by autumnman, posted 04-01-2008 5:48 PM autumnman has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 84 by autumnman, posted 04-01-2008 8:33 PM iano has replied

iano
Member (Idle past 1971 days)
Posts: 6165
From: Co. Wicklow, Ireland.
Joined: 07-27-2005


Message 94 of 315 (462374)
04-02-2008 6:16 PM
Reply to: Message 84 by autumnman
04-01-2008 8:33 PM


Re: Biblical Heb. Transliteration Convention
autumnman writes:
That is also how I mean the word “apparent.” Did you not even read what I wrote? I perceive a contradiction between Gen. 15:7 where God says to Abram, “I am YHWH,” thus making his “name” known to Abram/Abraham, and Ex. 6:3 where God says to Moses, “but my name, YHWH, not I make known to them {i.e. Abraham, Isaac, & Jacob).
There is a contradiction shown above. I perceive a contradiction above. You, however, do not. The fact that you do not perceive a contradiction above is what guides me to call the contradiction I perceive as an “apparent contradiction.”
That should not be too difficult to comprehend.
It wouldn't be at all difficult to comprehend but for the fact that you insert statements like: "There is a contradiction shown above" into your posts whilst arguing that you should say "There is an apparent contradiction shown above". A contradiction is one when agreed upon by all. Until then it's merely apparent. If you wonder why the confusion you might consider that it arises from reading what you write.
This “fool” says to you, “You have got to be kidding.” Either God did make his name, YHWH, known to Abram/Abraham, or God did not make his name, YHWH, known to Abram/Abraham. Did God make his name, YHWH, known to Abram when God said to Abram, “I am YHWH” in Gen. 15:7? What more does one need?
For some reason you've taken up my using an example from Proverbs regarding fools as a back door way for me to suggest you are a fool. That was not my intent. For the record, I don't consider you a fool.
Did God/didn't God? That's very black and white... when life and transliterated Hebrew are not at all like that. I've given a couple of clear examples of what might be called 'grey' - by way of illustration. You haven't attempted to address that point head on over these last posts - so I won't press on with it.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 84 by autumnman, posted 04-01-2008 8:33 PM autumnman has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 95 by autumnman, posted 04-02-2008 6:50 PM iano has not replied

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