How does all this silly nonsense about a flood account for the fact that the Chinese have records for the entire period before, during and after this supposed flood? Of course, they had their "great flood" too, but it was at a different period of time, with different survivors. The bible says that only Noah and his family survived.
Most of the great cultures on earth have a flood legend of some sort. It's understandable since great cultures, being great and all, include great numbers of people. If the numbers of people are great, and they didn't spend their entire existance wandering a desert, then at some point in their histories they would have experienced a flood that covered the entire world
so far as they knew. These were people who lived thousands of years ago. Ocean navigation as we know it didn't exist. There was no communication to speak of between different cultures, except in a tribe-to-tribe fashion.
The bible gives one account of such a flood. What baffles me is why fundies see such a compelling need to interpret the flood story literally. In so many other places (Genesis 19, for example) fundies insist that the bible must be understood in the context in which it was written. Why not here? If the flood happened, and it covered the entire world known at that time, why do you need all this nonsense about a flood covering the entire globe in order to understand it?
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