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Author Topic:   The Psychology Behind the Belief in Heaven and Hell
Teapots&unicorns
Member (Idle past 4917 days)
Posts: 178
Joined: 06-23-2009


Message 301 of 410 (534915)
11-11-2009 6:51 PM


EMA, whether or not there are many choices, more often than not, certain uncontrollable conditions can push some irrational and regretable decisions such as murder to a likelihood upwards of 90%- pretty damn close to deterministic if you ask me.
Yes, I am pulling percentages out of my ass but honestly, isn't this what you have experienced? If someone is angry, they are more likely to choose something that they would not have otherwise wanted and would later feel sorry about.
If this is "free will," then I have to severely question your interpretation and definition of the word. If however, it is, as Oni said, deterministic........
T&U

Replies to this message:
 Message 303 by onifre, posted 11-11-2009 7:36 PM Teapots&unicorns has replied
 Message 306 by Dawn Bertot, posted 11-12-2009 10:05 AM Teapots&unicorns has not replied

  
purpledawn
Member (Idle past 3487 days)
Posts: 4453
From: Indiana
Joined: 04-25-2004


Message 302 of 410 (534916)
11-11-2009 6:51 PM
Reply to: Message 296 by Dawn Bertot
11-11-2009 3:55 PM


God Did It His Way
quote:
You cant be serious in this statement. My question was if God purposely and directly hardened his heart with no choice of Pharoahs, why give him a choice in the first place?
And I replied, because that's the way God wanted to do it per Exodus 10:1 and 11:9. (And Exodus 7) I didn't make up why God did it that way, it is all right there in the book. God did it his way, not your way.
Even though you didn't consider my statement serious, if Pharaoh had let the Israelites go the first time he was ordered, the story would have been very uneventful. No miracles, no passover, no parting the waters. God wanted to flex his muscles and to do that Pharaoh had to be stubborn and not let the Israelites go until the time was right for God.
quote:
here is another simple question. If Pharoah had obeyed God, wouuld it be necessary for him to do any of the plauges?. Think about it logically
It's irrelevant, but I already covered that in Message 291. You didn't take the thought seriously. God wanted to do it that way. Read the story.
Right at the beginning of the story God says he will harden Pharaoh's heart. (Exodus 4:21)
Exodus 4:21
The Lord said to Moses, "When you return to Egypt, see that yo perform before Pharaoh all the wonders I have given you the power to do. But I will harden his heart so that he will not let the people go.
Exodus 7
You are to say everything I command you, and your brother Aaron is to tell Pharaoh to let the Israelites go out of his country. But I will harden Pharaoh's heart, and though I multiply my miraculous signs and wonders in Egypt, he will not listen.
In the story, God is very clear why he caused Pharaoh to be stubborn. It served a purpose.
From Message 298
quote:
Maybe, just maybe, (call me crazy)God gave Pharoah a choice because that is the normal, natural, logical and reasonable thing to do in the first place, as a rational. longsuffering God. Call me nutty.
What true choice was Pharaoh given without interference? (Verses please.)
Moses asked him to let the Israelites to go to the desert to worship.
Pharaoh didn't know who God was. How can there be a choice. All Pharaoh saw was the loss of his slave labor.
Exodus 5:2
Pharaoh said, "Who is the Lord, that I should obey him and let Israel go? I do not know the Lord and I will not let Israel go."
The first warning isn't really aimed at Pharaoh.
Exodus 5:3
Then they (Moses and Aaron) said, "The God of the Hebrews has met with us. Now let us take a three-day journey into the desert to offer sacrifices to the Lord our God, or he may strike us with plagues or with the sword."
God wanted to show his strength to Pharaoh and the Israelites.
Exodus 6
Then the Lord said to Moses, "Now you will see what I will do to Pharaoh: Because of my mighty hand he will let them go; because of my mighty hand he will drive them out of his country.
Whether you agree with God's methods or not, that's what the book says several times. God had a plan to show his power to Pharaoh and the Israelites. Pharaoh didn't have a choice in the Exodus event.
If I understand what Onifire is saying, God caused a determining factor that dictated what Pharaoh would choose to do. Pharaoh was a pawn for the plan.

"Peshat is what I say and derash is what you say." --Nehama Leibowitz

This message is a reply to:
 Message 296 by Dawn Bertot, posted 11-11-2009 3:55 PM Dawn Bertot has not replied

  
onifre
Member (Idle past 2980 days)
Posts: 4854
From: Dark Side of the Moon
Joined: 02-20-2008


(1)
Message 303 of 410 (534920)
11-11-2009 7:36 PM
Reply to: Message 301 by Teapots&unicorns
11-11-2009 6:51 PM


Hi T&U,
Thanks for joining in, and great posts btw.
Yes, I am pulling percentages out of my ass but honestly, isn't this what you have experienced? If someone is angry, they are more likely to choose something that they would not have otherwise wanted and would later feel sorry about.
If we go a little deeper than that, what does the bigger picture imply?
Well, that everything, even human cognition (the process of thinking), is determinitic. In fact, not being deterministic, and free willed solely from the persons mind - without cause, would break the law of cause and effect.
Everything we do is because we did something else, its all cause and effect. Every thought is reactionary, our behavior is reactionary, our decisions and actions - all of it.
Free will, to me, has always implied a seperation of cognent humans from their environment - which is not true. Our environment is as much a part of our cognition as our cognition is a part our environment - we are a part of the envirnment and the environment is a part of us too.
So, all I would need from EMA is a situation where a decision was made that wasn't deterministic.
If this is "free will," then I have to severely question your interpretation and definition of the word.
My first comment to EMA about "freewill" made my position clear: Message 207
EMA writes:
Now if you want to discuss this in the context of freewill, omniscience, the morality of heaven and hell I am more than willing to oblige, specifically the idea of free will and Gods omniscience
Oni writes:
If decisions are made because of reaction to stimuli, then there is no freewill at the atomic and molecular level. However, the way we experience reality makes it seem like there is.
IMO, the way we experience reality makes it seem like we have free will, but at the cellular level (neurons, etc) it is all deterministic.
- Oni

This message is a reply to:
 Message 301 by Teapots&unicorns, posted 11-11-2009 6:51 PM Teapots&unicorns has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 304 by Teapots&unicorns, posted 11-11-2009 7:52 PM onifre has not replied
 Message 307 by New Cat's Eye, posted 11-12-2009 10:51 AM onifre has replied

  
Teapots&unicorns
Member (Idle past 4917 days)
Posts: 178
Joined: 06-23-2009


Message 304 of 410 (534922)
11-11-2009 7:52 PM
Reply to: Message 303 by onifre
11-11-2009 7:36 PM


Sorry
oni writes:
If this is "free will," then I have to severely question your interpretation and definition of the word.
My first comment to EMA about "freewill" made my position clear: Message 207
Sorry, I was talking to EMA.
My bad.
oni writes:
great posts btw.
Thanks
T&U
Edited by Teapots&unicorns, : Quotebox issue
Edited by Teapots&unicorns, : No reason given.
Edited by Teapots&unicorns, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 303 by onifre, posted 11-11-2009 7:36 PM onifre has not replied

  
DevilsAdvocate
Member (Idle past 3131 days)
Posts: 1548
Joined: 06-05-2008


(2)
Message 305 of 410 (534943)
11-11-2009 10:26 PM
Reply to: Message 298 by Dawn Bertot
11-11-2009 4:54 PM


Re: Simple Reading
EMA,
I am really getting sick and tired of your ad hominem quips, i.e.:
EMA writes:
You cant be serious in your above statement, give me a break
EMA writes:
You cant be serious in this statement.
EMA writes:
Remember, CD, focus on the arguments and you will be taken seriously. Good luck.
EMA writes:
The word simple in your above sentence, carries a much heavier implication for yourself, than a definition in a dictionary, if you catch my drift.
EMA writes:
Wow, I really hope you guys are playing the dumb card here, if you are not I am truely sorry in assuming it thus.
EMA writes:
Im going to let this go with a smile, Im sure your a good person otherwise, but a bit simplistic to actually carry on a conversation with.
EMA writes:
Quit being willfully stupid, its not cute, creative or unique.
Stick to the rules of debate. If you can't argue your side without making snide, hypocrytical, self-righteous remarks it usually shows that you do not have ammunition to defend your position. This is what everyone is pointing out to you and you still continue to do it.
I am asking politely that you stop. It's annoying and childish. This goes for everyone else as well.

One of the saddest lessons of history is this: If we've been bamboozled long enough, we tend to reject any evidence of the bamboozle. We're no longer interested in finding out the truth. The bamboozle has captured us. It is simply too painful to acknowledge -- even to ourselves -- that we've been so credulous. - Carl Sagan, The Fine Art of Baloney Detection
"You can't convince a believer of anything; for their belief is not based on evidence, it's based on a deep seated need to believe." - Carl Sagan
"It is far better to grasp the Universe as it really is than to persist in delusion, however satisfying and reassuring." - Carl Sagan, The Demon-Haunted World

This message is a reply to:
 Message 298 by Dawn Bertot, posted 11-11-2009 4:54 PM Dawn Bertot has not replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 113 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 306 of 410 (534993)
11-12-2009 10:05 AM
Reply to: Message 301 by Teapots&unicorns
11-11-2009 6:51 PM


If this is "free will," then I have to severely question your interpretation and definition of the word. If however, it is, as Oni said, deterministic........
T&U
Thanks to TU, ONI and Purpledawn, for your last responses, I have started my responses and should have them out later this evening, thanks for your patience
EAM

This message is a reply to:
 Message 301 by Teapots&unicorns, posted 11-11-2009 6:51 PM Teapots&unicorns has not replied

  
New Cat's Eye
Inactive Member


Message 307 of 410 (535002)
11-12-2009 10:51 AM
Reply to: Message 303 by onifre
11-11-2009 7:36 PM


If we go a little deeper than that, what does the bigger picture imply?
Well, that everything, even human cognition (the process of thinking), is determinitic.
What about the random walk of an electron or boiling water molecule or Brownian motion, etc?
I think sentience, itself, could be, or could be the the result of, the breaking of determinism and thus the emergence of free will.
This ain't on topic though

This message is a reply to:
 Message 303 by onifre, posted 11-11-2009 7:36 PM onifre has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 311 by onifre, posted 11-12-2009 5:50 PM New Cat's Eye has not replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 113 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 308 of 410 (535052)
11-12-2009 4:35 PM
Reply to: Message 299 by Teapots&unicorns
11-11-2009 4:58 PM


Re: Oh Dear
TU writes
By "free will," he means: "the ability to make decisions [that are influenced bt outside sources] on your own."
Not your definition which means "anything that you feel like doing"
Part of freewill is anything you feel like doing depending on the information from the outside. That’s the whole point of freewill, its starts interternally. All he needs to do is show that in a normal situation another choice could not have been made. His task is impossible, because in any normal situation, there is always another choice, that’s why its called freewill, your contrived definition notwithstanding
If your will is extremely compromised like with a defect, then, yes, that is the removal of the kind of "free will" that we are talking about.
These examples do not apply to normal situations. He provided this example to sidetrack the original question by myself. Im not talking about these extremes and he knows it, because he cannot provide an answer for the original question put ot him and he knows it.
In any normal situation a person does have a choice, determining factors are not primary, they only help influence the decision making process
EMA, this is not about a "wrong choice;" it is about a wrong action If God permits sin as a result of free will (your convoluted definition at least), then if an sinful action is committed without or with a compromised free will, like with sociopathy, then he could easily stop the action, as it would serve no purpose other than to cause suffering.
You are wrong once again, it is about choice, choices right or wrong,or otherwise,choice by the individual and whether or not the individual has his ability as a result of freewill. Gods part is not in question at this point, we are talking strickly about freewill and what it involves. Until we arrive at a agreement about that it is irrelevant how God is responsible .
In addition, in your reference to society, you mentioned courts of law. No, they do not arrest mentally impaired who have committed crimes; however, if they are unable to control themselves, then they are taken out of society for their own and everyone else's good.
Ever read Of Mice and Men by Steinbeck? The ending fits in pretty well with what I'm talking about.
Your verboseness does not remove the fact that people , NOW WATCH, ARE PUNISHED when it is determined NO malfunction or insanity is involved, to which the court understands and responds to their
actions as free thinking persons
EMA, you are failing to comprehend what he is talking about. He is saying that almost all cases of murder are motivated by a kind of brain defect or damage (Guess we'll have to remove that sin from the
list).
I understand what he is saying son, I am simply pointing out that he is wrong about murder always involving some kind of brain defect, that is just liberal nonsense. It can be easily demonstrated that a
person is acting of their own volition or by choice, free of any defect to accomplish this act.
As I have said before we are not talking about these extreme examples,he brought this up as misdirection to sidetrack my
original point.
Also, the only reason the state takes a life is because the person is literally unable to atone and fit back in society. See the book I recommended above.
This is a total misrepresentation of what actually takes place at times and you know it. Many people are executed due to the nature of the crime, as in the case of Tim Mcveigh, not whether they can fit back in or not. You have deliberately misrepresented that situation with regard to as why people are executed, you have deliberatley left off the other reasons
Choice IS a part of "free" will, but we don't have unlimited choices. We are all extremely limited in that our brain is much more influenced in some courses of action than others. If, to follow my above example, you are a sociopath, then you will feel no remorse at watching the death, and thus no motivation for helping the person.
Demonstrating extreme examples to remove the fact that we do not have choices in normal situations does not accomplish your task.. If as you suggest, choice is a part of freewill then my point is made by without any assistance from me. We are not talking about fringe situations
It is not that the choice COULD NOT have been made, as you put it; it is just that the individual would be greatly influenced toward one particular course of action. Think of it like a drug addict: he could quit, but does he have the willpower or the motivation? Is that his fault?
Influence is not the final decision making process, your choice is the final reult of the influence. Again, you are demonstrating my point, I myself willed myself to quit smoking, through no programs or assistance from programs or the such like, my best friend did the samething and quicker than I did. so to answer your question, yes, a person DOES have the willpower and the motivation, it only remains to be seen if they will exercise that choice.
Again, you are pointing out extreme examples to avoid a very simple point. the point is, that in most normal situations A PERSON HAS a choice that is determined by itself witht he assistance of outside
influences
EMA, perhaps a more apt analogy would be when the doctor tests your reflexes and then places his assistant right in the way of your foot.
"But I didn't want to kick her..."
You know this is not what we are discussing and it does not apply to choices and freewill. The doctor wouldnt ask you why you kicked her the first place, he would know why you did and he would know yopu
did not make a choice. This is why it is called a INVOLUNTARY REFLEX. Choices do not fall within that context. Please be serious.
Choices can always be made in the opposite direction; however, if all possible courses of action are charted as probabilities, then some will be vastly higher because of unconscious predilections.
Thank you and there is no reason to believe that choices are so controlled by outside influences, to the degree that they are uncontrolable, or not a rational choice due to subconscious or unconscious predilections, "a tendency twords a favorable thing". the choice remains, a person in a normal situation has the ability decide between one thing or another, that is the essence of freewill. it you think otherwise you will need something other than the extreme and fringe situations you have provided.
It's like calling someone "rash" or "stubborn."
Did they choose to be that way?
No.
Wrong and this is what you would need to demonstrate otherwise. All indications are that this behavior is progressive and takes a long period of time with attitudes that move in that direction. the person could choose to be more reasonable and objective at any point
Does their personality affect their decisions?
Hell yes.
I agree but it is not the overriding factor in the DECISION making process. the choice IS and usually can be demonstrated to be simply a decision based on sound decisions. Sometimes a choice is nothing more than an appeal to personal preference verses something else.
Burger King verses Mickie Dees
EAM
Edited by AdminPD, : Fixed quote box

This message is a reply to:
 Message 299 by Teapots&unicorns, posted 11-11-2009 4:58 PM Teapots&unicorns has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 310 by Teapots&unicorns, posted 11-12-2009 5:28 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Dawn Bertot
Member (Idle past 113 days)
Posts: 3571
Joined: 11-23-2007


Message 309 of 410 (535054)
11-12-2009 4:44 PM
Reply to: Message 300 by onifre
11-11-2009 5:20 PM


Re: deterministic reality vs freewill reality
ONI writes:
That's because the punishment for the crime is irrelevant.
Oni I am only talking about punishment because you brought up these extreme situations. I was only speaking about, simple, and for all intents and purposes, normal situations, and making decisions in that context. T&U seems to agree with this simple observation, unless I am totally misunderstanding him
Besides this punishment is relevant if you are assinging guilt or trying to show responsibility
We are NOT talking about a retarded person, I said "a neurological disorder that triggered an imbalance in his emotions." Normal for all other things, just got extra mad and killed his wife because of this disorder.
He had no choice, as you say, this is the point. Why does a physical handycap remove freewill and choices IF like you said it is an abstract thing?
Because the thing that motivated the thought in the first place was faulty, then the thought is no longer based on a valid, rational choice, there is no actual choice because the rational process of the mechanism was faulty in the first place
I didnt mean to imply a thought wasnt there in that situation, but that the choice is overriden by delusion, or emotional whatever.
As I said before this has nothing to do with the simple situation I am presenting.
Heres a scenario for you. You say that when a person murders someone, there must be, has to be emotional embalance or a neurological malfunction, it could not be done when the person is rational or thinking correctly., as you say. So are you saying that when a person does not murder someone they are angry at, that they are NORMAL and that there are no emotional embalances or disorders?
In other words, how do you decide what normal behavior is from a neurological standpoint. If I were to turn the other cheek after a person said or did something to me, of say, a negative conotation, would my
actions be considered NORMAL or my EMOTIONS BALANCED CORRECTLY?
Remember, you are saying something is wrong in thier process when they do commit murder.
This would mean that the physical process of thought is directly related to freewill - without the physcial process, you have NO freewill.
No because freewill and thoughts are abstractions, a by product of the mental process. even if they were not, the malfunction would not make God responsible, or the rational mind that commits murder would be responsible to itself, due to a decision based on a rational process and free moral choice. Its you responsibility to show how in normal situations, how outside or internal factors, so greatly influence a decision as to make it not a rational valid choice. Your task is impossible.
Further the malfunction as you call it is a product of Sin in the first place, as result of the degradation as described in Romans chapter 8. Creation and the human condition went from perfection to
imperfection. the possiblity for the mind to malfunction was due to sin in the first place.
While this is true, God does not hold a person accountable in those circumstances and this has nothing to do with what I am discussing anyway. You can disregard your extreme examples, they dont apply.
remember it is you stating that there must be malfunction if someone murders, it doesnt take a giant in logic to see that if no murders is commited that there be a situation where a NORMAL situation exists.
God created this person faulty and inturn someone lost their lives due to god's inability to create things properly. You have just made a case for god being less than perfect.
No God created a perfect system in which he told man to not disobey him or CONSEQUENCES would follow. the consequences were imperfections which were not possible, in the previously perfect system.
The imperfection was a direct result of sin, NOWS HERE THE KICKER, which was a direct result of a choice made by a rational mind, based on freewill. It comes and came full circle. Man is responsible for all the sin and all the problems, not MY GOD
One, god made this person faulty where he couldn't make the right choice, and you think this doesn't make god responsible? God is TOTALLY responsible. He created him with a fault that caused someone else to lose their lives!
No God created him perfec, initially, man made the CHOICE to become less than perfect.
Two, I've asked you already: "Now, your objective would be to give me an example of a decision you would make, or an action you'd take, that DIDN'T have any determining factors." So just give me one.
Thats nonsense, they all have determining factors, but you have made determing factors, the god of freewill, but you have not demonstrated this in any real fashion. I give you the example of my quiting smoking, the biological desire was and is still there but my decision of a rational nature overides the internal or external factors. My choice is to not do it because of possible consequences, but at any point I can override EVEN this contemplation and GO in the opposite direction. Its just a choice and my choice
You have to deal with my scenario as it is. I present the scenario, you can't change it; deal with it directly don't side step it.
I have already done this several times. however, had I not, it would not matter, your scenario does not address my original question, which was to demonstrate in a normal situation where a choice in the opposite direction was not possible, you have still failed to do that very thing
There can't be freewill in a deterministic world - I have shown you 3 scenarios where a determining
factor dictated where the person would choose to go. You have to show me how it wasn't due to a determining factor - then you would prove that we have freewill.
unless you can demonstrate how and why a choice in the opposite direction is not possible in any normal situation your statement makes no sense. of course other factors are involved but they are not the god you are requiring of them, you havent demonstrated this point, yougave a few extreme examples that do not apply overall
In your scenario, he may have stayed there and took the hot coffee because he didn't want to cause a scene - there again is a determining factor.
You do see the words, "because he didnt WANT TO CAUSE............" in your sentence, correct?. Thats called a choice ONI, he made a choice, not determined by the burning hot coffee but by another factor called a decision of his mind. I have just demonstrated my point beyond any doubt
It was another choice besides the one you demanded of the situation. This is really silly, all you have done is replace the word CHOICE, with deterministic, it doesnt change the fact that a choice is real and possible ibn any normal situation
Do you get what I'm saying? You have to show me how choices are made purely, and solely from freewill without determining factors. And yes, a malfuntion IS a determining factor.
They are made in CONJUNCTION with determining factors, but another choice is always possible, unless you can demonstrate otherwise, can you? All youve done to this point is show in some extreme situation
that another choice may not have been possible. In one of your examples no choice was made due to malfunction in another you did not demonstrate that another was not possible, you simply speculated
that it MAY NOT be possible, this is not the same as demonstrating it as impossible.
You examples do not speak to situations overall and you know it. Your misdirection will not work here
If reality is deterministic, then there is no freewill. If it is not deterministic, then there is freewill. You must show how reality is NOT deterministic. Can you? I believe you can't.
No my point was that, reality dicates by reason of common sense that ANOTHER CHOICE is always possible in any normal situation
EAM
Edited by EMA, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 300 by onifre, posted 11-11-2009 5:20 PM onifre has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 313 by onifre, posted 11-12-2009 6:19 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

  
Teapots&unicorns
Member (Idle past 4917 days)
Posts: 178
Joined: 06-23-2009


Message 310 of 410 (535063)
11-12-2009 5:28 PM
Reply to: Message 308 by Dawn Bertot
11-12-2009 4:35 PM


Re: Oh Dear
EMA writes:
TU writes
By "free will," he means: "the ability to make decisions [that are influenced bt outside sources] on your own."
Not your definition which means "anything that you feel like doing"
Part of freewill is anything you feel like doing depending on the information from the outside. That’s the whole point of freewill, its starts interternally. All he needs to do is show that in a normal situation another choice could not have been made. His task is impossible, because in any normal situation, there is always another choice, that’s why its called freewill, your contrived definition notwithstanding
Yes, EMA, "free will" does start internally; however, it does not start consciously, and in fact we are mainly influenced by sub- and unconscious predilections our mind may already have. And yes, in a normal situation, another choice could have been made, but we're not talking about a normal situation, are we? If someone has free will once, they have it always.
EMA writes:
If your will is extremely compromised like with a defect, then, yes, that is the removal of the kind of "free will" that we are talking about.
These examples do not apply to normal situations. He provided this example to sidetrack the original question by myself. Im not talking about these extremes and he knows it, because he cannot provide an answer for the original question put ot him and he knows it.
In any normal situation a person does have a choice, determining factors are not primary, they only help influence the decision making process
Once again, on your statement about normal situations, see above. As per the determining factors, they are not absolute; however they are primary and in fact determine what choices you are more likely to make. If you can do choices A, B, C, and D, and your unconscious all but eliminates B and D, then you will be very likely indeed to choose either A or D. All choices are probabilistic; this what you are missing.
EMA writes:
EMA, this is not about a "wrong choice;" it is about a wrong action If God permits sin as a result of free will (your convoluted definition at least), then if an sinful action is committed without or with a compromised free will, like with sociopathy, then he could easily stop the action, as it would serve no purpose other than to cause suffering.
You are wrong once again, it is about choice, choices right or wrong,or otherwise,choice by the individual and whether or not the individual has his ability as a result of freewill. Gods part is not in question at this point, we are talking strickly about freewill and what it involves. Until we arrive at a agreement about that it is irrelevant how God is responsible .
Actually, we are bringing God into it. Follow this logical process:
1. God gives humans free will
i. Free will enables us to sin
ii. God desires that we have the choice to sin, but does prefers goodness and healing
over sin and suffering.
2. Sociopaths are likely to murder.
i. Their desire is not a result of free will.
ii. Murder is a sin and an undesirable action.
3. Because murder is a sin but is not motivated by free will, then God would want to prevent it.
This argument can even be continued:
4. God prevents sociopathic murder.
5. Sociopathic murder exists (contradiction).
6. God does not prevent sociopathic murder and thus, as defined above, does not exist.
EMA writes:
In addition, in your reference to society, you mentioned courts of law. No, they do not arrest mentally impaired who have committed crimes; however, if they are unable to control themselves, then they are taken out of society for their own and everyone else's good.
Ever read Of Mice and Men by Steinbeck? The ending fits in pretty well with what I'm talking about.
Your verboseness does not remove the fact that people , NOW WATCH, ARE PUNISHED when it is determined NO malfunction or insanity is involved, to which the court understands and responds to their
actions as free thinking persons
We are not talking about sane people. We were talking about those unable to control their actions.
Stick to the topic at hand please.
EMA writes:
EMA, you are failing to comprehend what he is talking about. He is saying that almost all cases of murder are motivated by a kind of brain defect or damage (Guess we'll have to remove that sin from the
list).
I understand what he is saying son, I am simply pointing out that he is wrong about murder always involving some kind of brain defect, that is just liberal nonsense. It can be easily demonstrated that a
person is acting of their own volition or by choice, free of any defect to accomplish this act.
As I have said before we are not talking about these extreme examples,he brought this up as misdirection to sidetrack my
original point.
You seem to misunderstand us. By "brain defect" we do not mean retarded in any way; we simply mean with a higher amount of chemicals in the brain corresponding to irrational and violent decision making, thus singling the individual out as more likely to be violent.
Whether extreme or not, they are relevant, and you seem unable to explain them.
EMA writes:
Also, the only reason the state takes a life is because the person is literally unable to atone and fit back in society. See the book I recommended above.
This is a total misrepresentation of what actually takes place at times and you know it. Many people are executed due to the nature of the crime, as in the case of Tim Mcveigh, not whether they can fit back in or not. You have deliberately misrepresented that situation with regard to as why people are executed, you have deliberatley left off the other reasons
You, once again, are failing to see what I was getting at. Capital punishment is used because if placed back in society, the criminal would most likely murder again and/or feels no remorse for what he did.
I hope that people like you can move past the viewpoint of having to violently or otherwise hatefully respond against those who have wronged you or society. That is not justice. That is revenge.
EMA writes:
Choice IS a part of "free" will, but we don't have unlimited choices. We are all extremely limited in that our brain is much more influenced in some courses of action than others. If, to follow my above example, you are a sociopath, then you will feel no remorse at watching the death, and thus no motivation for helping the person.
Demonstrating extreme examples to remove the fact that we do not have choices in normal situations does not accomplish your task.. If as you suggest, choice is a part of freewill then my point is made by without any assistance from me. We are not talking about fringe situations
We are not talking about just fringe situations; we are talking about all possible situations. Which, unfortunately for you, include extremes. Conscious choice is a part of "free will," as you say; this much I will give you. However, if your choices are unconsciously narrowed down (probabilisticly) from A, B, C, and D to A and D, then how "free" is your choice?
EMA writes:
It is not that the choice COULD NOT have been made, as you put it; it is just that the individual would be greatly influenced toward one particular course of action. Think of it like a drug addict: he could quit, but does he have the willpower or the motivation? Is that his fault?
Influence is not the final decision making process, your choice is the final reult of the influence. Again, you are demonstrating my point, I myself willed myself to quit smoking, through no programs or assistance from programs or the such like, my best friend did the samething and quicker than I did. so to answer your question, yes, a person DOES have the willpower and the motivation, it only remains to be seen if they will exercise that choice.
Again, you are pointing out extreme examples to avoid a very simple point. the point is, that in most normal situations A PERSON HAS a choice that is determined by itself witht he assistance of outside
influences
Once again, you are expressing your ignorance of the probability nature of choices. A person who smokes only quits if the probability of wanting better health is greater than the unconscious probability disclosed by the nicotine itself.
In addition, you seem to be very confused as to outside influences. I ask: is a child growing up in the ghettoes of New York City more likely to do drugs and smoke then a child born and raised in a wealthy, caring family from Albany?
EMA writes:
EMA, perhaps a more apt analogy would be when the doctor tests your reflexes and then places his assistant right in the way of your foot.
"But I didn't want to kick her..."
You know this is not what we are discussing and it does not apply to choices and freewill. The doctor wouldnt ask you why you kicked her the first place, he would know why you did and he would know yopu
did not make a choice. This is why it is called a INVOLUNTARY REFLEX. Choices do not fall within that context. Please be serious.
EMA, this is exactly what we are talking about. If a sociopath has all choices but murder (at a percentage of, say 98%) eliminated, then is that really a choice? Or is it more of a, as you put it, an involuntary reflex. In certain situations, humans put aside choices and act either on instinct or pure reflex. That is why you hear about fathers beating their kids because: "It's the only thing they know." That kind of action has become so ingrained in their mind that they do it without thought.
EMA writes:
Choices can always be made in the opposite direction; however, if all possible courses of action are charted as probabilities, then some will be vastly higher because of unconscious predilections.
Thank you and there is no reason to believe that choices are so controlled by outside influences, to the degree that they are uncontrolable, or not a rational choice due to subconscious or unconscious predilections, "a tendency twords a favorable thing". the choice remains, a person in a normal situation has the ability decide between one thing or another, that is the essence of freewill. it you think otherwise you will need something other than the extreme and fringe situations you have provided.
Not uncontrollable; just so much more likely by outside influence. See many, many of my examples and others' from above and earlier.
EMA writes:
It's like calling someone "rash" or "stubborn."
Did they choose to be that way?
No.
Wrong and this is what you would need to demonstrate otherwise. All indications are that this behavior is progressive and takes a long period of time with attitudes that move in that direction. the person could choose to be more reasonable and objective at any point
Does their personality affect their decisions?
Hell yes.
I agree but it is not the overriding factor in the DECISION making process. the choice IS and usually can be demonstrated to be simply a decision based on sound decisions. Sometimes a choice is nothing more than an appeal to personal preference verses something else.
Yes attitudes move in time, but that is a normal development in people, kind of like puberty . And, you seem to forget, how many change of worldviews are triggered by outside influences like the death or betrayal of someone close, or perhaps the loss of a great oppurtunity?
EMA writes:
Burger King verses Mickie Dees
No way. Wendy's pwns.
T&U
Edited by AdminPD, : Fix quote box

This message is a reply to:
 Message 308 by Dawn Bertot, posted 11-12-2009 4:35 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 320 by Dawn Bertot, posted 11-13-2009 8:11 PM Teapots&unicorns has replied

  
onifre
Member (Idle past 2980 days)
Posts: 4854
From: Dark Side of the Moon
Joined: 02-20-2008


Message 311 of 410 (535065)
11-12-2009 5:50 PM
Reply to: Message 307 by New Cat's Eye
11-12-2009 10:51 AM


I think sentience, itself, could be, or could be the the result of, the breaking of determinism and thus the emergence of free will.
As experienced by us, yes, I agree. But not at the neuro level, because there must be a cause before the effect.
Cognition and sentience are the result of billions of neurons firing in the brain, causing us to become conscious of the reality we experience. Those neurons need a reason for action; the reason is stimuli. So we are cognent because of our environment - because of stimuli - without it we wouldn't have a notion of free will.
It almost has to be deterministic. Experiencing reality, and thus having causes for all of our thoughts, actions, dreams, etc., leads us by default into a deterministic world.
Question: Does someone who has no use of their sensory functions have free will?
This ain't on topic though
It is. If I can prove determinism then humans have no fault (in theory) for their actions, and thus Hell (a punishment by god to his faulty creation) doesn't seem just.
- Oni

This message is a reply to:
 Message 307 by New Cat's Eye, posted 11-12-2009 10:51 AM New Cat's Eye has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 312 by Straggler, posted 11-12-2009 5:55 PM onifre has replied

  
Straggler
Member (Idle past 95 days)
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


Message 312 of 410 (535066)
11-12-2009 5:55 PM
Reply to: Message 311 by onifre
11-12-2009 5:50 PM


Usensored Brains
Question: Does someone who has no use of their sensory functions have free will?
Hmmm. Cool question.
If someone loses all their sensory functions then I think they would. They could choose to remember and reflect on certain experiences.
A brain that has never experienced any external stimuli at all.....? Well I think that would be a significanly different brain to those of most "normal" humans. Whether any internal thoughtlike form of "free-will" would be possible is an interesting question. A question that I have no idea as to the answer to. But the brain in qustion would be highly undeveloped and incapable, I suspect, of many/most types of thought processes that we take for granted.
Edited by Straggler, : No reason given.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 311 by onifre, posted 11-12-2009 5:50 PM onifre has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 314 by onifre, posted 11-12-2009 6:41 PM Straggler has replied

  
onifre
Member (Idle past 2980 days)
Posts: 4854
From: Dark Side of the Moon
Joined: 02-20-2008


Message 313 of 410 (535073)
11-12-2009 6:19 PM
Reply to: Message 309 by Dawn Bertot
11-12-2009 4:44 PM


Re: deterministic reality vs freewill reality
So are you saying that when a person does not murder someone they are angry at, that they are NORMAL and that there are no emotional embalances or disorders?
No.
Remember, you are saying something is wrong in thier process when they do commit murder.
The taking of a human life is not normal, there must be some emotional trigger (whether current or repressed), from a psychological perspective.
This doesn't mean the person is faulty or that their brain has a built in malfunction - this is the burden of having emotions that work at a chemical level. Chemicals which are uncontrolable, because, we have NO free will over them.
Oni writes:
This would mean that the physical process of thought is directly related to freewill - without the physcial process, you have NO freewill.
EMA writes:
No because freewill and thoughts are abstractions, a by product of the mental process.
If you admit that its a by-product of the mental process, then how can you disagree that without the mental process you have no free will or thoughts (or choices, feelings, emotions, etc.)...?
It's a by-product of it, therefore it exists because of it - there's no way around that.
And again, thoughts are not abstract. What YOU recognize is abstract (consciousness), they themselves (cognition) is real.
even if they were not, the malfunction would not make God responsible, or the rational mind that commits murder would be responsible to itself, due to a decision based on a rational process and free moral choice.
But we are talking about a decision made by a rational human being in a moment where he lost control of his own emotions - it was out of his hands, he lost his free will.
This isn't a case of free moral choice; this is a case of no other choice because he couldn't control his internal chemicals that made him do what he did.
To have free will would mean that you have control of your internal chemical reactions that cause you to often do things that under normal circumstances you would not - thats the point, free will is control over everything that directs your actions - we don't have that.
You want me to give examples "under normal situations," but for anything out of your control to actually happen, it often means that it went past being a normal situation. But as humans experiencing the world we live in, IF we have free will, then we should have free will for ALL situations. We don't though, and that's the issue.
Further the malfunction as you call it is a product of Sin in the first place
I do not accept this as an answer. I know this is your faith, but its complete bs.
If this is how you will deal with my argument then we can end it here.
Thats nonsense, they all have determining factors
Thank you, then the world we exist in is deterministic - no free will, its all pre-determined by your interaction with your environment.
I have no further points to make.
- Oni

This message is a reply to:
 Message 309 by Dawn Bertot, posted 11-12-2009 4:44 PM Dawn Bertot has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 317 by Dawn Bertot, posted 11-13-2009 11:36 AM onifre has not replied
 Message 324 by Dawn Bertot, posted 11-15-2009 11:51 AM onifre has replied

  
onifre
Member (Idle past 2980 days)
Posts: 4854
From: Dark Side of the Moon
Joined: 02-20-2008


Message 314 of 410 (535074)
11-12-2009 6:41 PM
Reply to: Message 312 by Straggler
11-12-2009 5:55 PM


Re: Usensored Brains
Hmmm. Cool question.
Just following in your footsteps, bro. lol
If someone loses all their sensory functions then I think they would. They could choose to remember and reflect on certain experiences.
I didn't think of it being lost or born with ... that adds a new aspect to the question.
I'd agree that the person would still be conscious (don't know for how long, or even what consciousness would develop into in the long run with no sensory stimuli) - but, I don't see what you'd have free will over?
To be conscious, sentient, in fact human, is to have a sensory system - I believe the term for not having them is a veg?
But the brain in qustion would be highly undeveloped and incapable, I suspect, of many/most types of thought processes that we take for granted.
Yea, I agree. I can't see having free will (as we experience it - which I agree we do have that feeling) without ever having any stimuli.
I didn't have any argument for or against the question I asked CS, I was just curious if he could seperate free will from the mind/sensory functions and the environment we exist in and what his answer would be. I'm just guessing myself.
To me, it all seems deterministic though.
- Oni

This message is a reply to:
 Message 312 by Straggler, posted 11-12-2009 5:55 PM Straggler has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 315 by Straggler, posted 11-12-2009 6:52 PM onifre has replied

  
Straggler
Member (Idle past 95 days)
Posts: 10333
From: London England
Joined: 09-30-2006


Message 315 of 410 (535080)
11-12-2009 6:52 PM
Reply to: Message 314 by onifre
11-12-2009 6:41 PM


Re: Usensored Brains
I have no evidence at all on which to base this claim but let's imagine.....
If my brain was removed from my body and placed in a jar, given sufficiant nutrients, oxygen etc. etc. with which to function as if it were still in a body but without all external sensory input.....
Then I think I would still be me in some sense. I would miss my son, my wife, my body and my ability to interract with the world. I may well go mad. I may well lose myself in the necessity of fantasy based on past memory. But I don't think I would lose all free-will about what I decided to think about. As such.
Maybe I am an inherent dualist? But still the idea that removing all sensory input removes all sense of mind and self I think is counter-intuitive and thus requires some explanation even if intuition in this case is unjustified.
Sorry to be the pain in your theory here but I think the question you have posed is genuinely intriguing and worthy of some thought.

This message is a reply to:
 Message 314 by onifre, posted 11-12-2009 6:41 PM onifre has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 316 by onifre, posted 11-12-2009 8:07 PM Straggler has replied

  
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