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Author Topic:   The Inerrancy of the Bible
sld
Inactive Member


Message 11 of 301 (176027)
01-11-2005 9:54 PM
Reply to: Message 1 by 36Christians
01-10-2005 10:23 AM


Hey 36Christians! Great to see more from good 'ole Bham on these here boards. Are you guys from Briarwood?
In any event, I'm not exactly sure what you mean by errors, but I think to call the KJV perfect is ludicrous. I'll just start with one verse from 1 John Chapter 5 verse 7: "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."
Is it your contention that this is part of the word of god? If so, can you explain why it is not in any other Bible until the latter middle ages? It is not in any of the early greek manuscripts that have survived, nor is it ever mentioned by any early Greek or Latin church writers even when they would obviously have need to use this verse to support their position on the Trinity.
This verse is now almost universally regarded as an interpolation by later "editors" of the Bible.
There are other issues, including the changed ending of Mark, additions in Acts that are not in earlier editions, and other strange differences. But that's enough for now.
Looking forward to your reply,
SLD

This message is a reply to:
 Message 1 by 36Christians, posted 01-10-2005 10:23 AM 36Christians has not replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 12 by johnfolton, posted 01-11-2005 11:22 PM sld has not replied

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