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Author Topic:   Atheist morality
Ben!
Member (Idle past 1429 days)
Posts: 1161
From: Hayward, CA
Joined: 10-14-2004


Message 2 of 95 (193628)
03-23-2005 6:13 AM
Reply to: Message 1 by tsig
03-23-2005 5:40 AM


If you try to be honest, you tend to meet a lot of honest people.
What's the difference between "honest" and "open" ? I'd say, when I'm honest but not open, I tend to meet the same people as when I'm dishonest and not open.
But when I'm honest and open, I tend to get taken advantage of.
Morality is not a belief, but what we do each day.
I was just 'lecturing' about this about 20 minutes ago...
I truly believe this is the difference between "explicit" knowledge and "implicit" knowledge. Morality is not a set of rules. Socrates was wrong to judge that those who could not state what morality and judgement is didn't "know" what it is. I agree with you. True morality is not based on rules. It is an implicit system. It is not a belief, but what we do.
Ben

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 Message 1 by tsig, posted 03-23-2005 5:40 AM tsig has replied

Replies to this message:
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Ben!
Member (Idle past 1429 days)
Posts: 1161
From: Hayward, CA
Joined: 10-14-2004


Message 13 of 95 (193862)
03-24-2005 1:06 AM
Reply to: Message 6 by tsig
03-23-2005 2:39 PM


The problem is not naivete; it's that, in order to be honest and open, you have to expose things that others can (and do) take advantage of. That happens whether you're naive to what people will do with it or not.
The only solution I know of is to be dishonest or to be guarded. I don't know of any way to be open and honest, yet not be taken advantage of. If you do, I'd appreciate to hear about it.

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Ben!
Member (Idle past 1429 days)
Posts: 1161
From: Hayward, CA
Joined: 10-14-2004


Message 62 of 95 (196286)
04-02-2005 8:04 PM
Reply to: Message 60 by RAZD
04-02-2005 7:22 PM


Re: real morality based on reason, logic and universalizability
This brings us to universality -- whatever is right (or wrong) in one situation is right (or wrong) in any relevantly similar situation -- from last link:
Universalizability as described above is a basic logical feature of all moral discourse. That is, in making a distinctively moral judgment, you commit yourself to its universalizability. If in making a judgment you refuse to recognize its universalizability, then you are actually refusing to make a moral judgment.
I don't get it. Even if we grant that the golden rule is universal, I don't understand how you got to this point. Why is "universality the basic feature of all moral discourse?"
Is the premise that the "Golden Rule" is the basis of all morality in a social system, and for anything else to be called morality, then it must be derived from the Golden Rule? Thus, since the "Golden Rule" is "universal," all morals must be universal?
I'd appreciate a bit more explanation on this point. I feel lost.

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 Message 60 by RAZD, posted 04-02-2005 7:22 PM RAZD has replied

Replies to this message:
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Ben!
Member (Idle past 1429 days)
Posts: 1161
From: Hayward, CA
Joined: 10-14-2004


Message 65 of 95 (196297)
04-02-2005 8:32 PM
Reply to: Message 63 by RAZD
04-02-2005 8:22 PM


Re: real morality based on reason, logic and universalizability
k?
NOT YET
it is the condition of universality is the key to understanding what is truly moral and to distinguishing {"cookbook" morals and opinions} from {universal morality}. it follows from logic.
I think I understand. I guess I read into what you said that somehow "cookbook" morals and opinions are somehow lesser than "universal morals." If not, then I don't see why exploring "universal morals" would be important.
But I don't get the premise of why "universal morals" are important. In other words, I don't get why you're bringing up this distinction in the first place. Is it just to correct some people who say they have "universal morality," or is it to define a set of principles which are somehow "higher" than others?
I think understanding these things helps me understand the big picture. Thanks!

This message is a reply to:
 Message 63 by RAZD, posted 04-02-2005 8:22 PM RAZD has replied

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Ben!
Member (Idle past 1429 days)
Posts: 1161
From: Hayward, CA
Joined: 10-14-2004


Message 68 of 95 (201076)
04-22-2005 1:12 AM
Reply to: Message 60 by RAZD
04-02-2005 7:22 PM


Re: real morality based on reason, logic and universalizability
RAZD,
Thanks for the links and info in this thread. I've read through a bit, and I'm understanding a bit better... but of course, that means I have many more questions.
After reading a bit about Rosseau's "Social Contract", I think it's heavily influencing what you say. Is that right? Also, is this entire line of your thinking dependent on the participants being within a society (and thus governed by Rosseau's "Social Contract") ?
Anything a person does off by himself that has absolutely no effect on any other person is neither moral nor immoral but amoral.
Because when alone, there's no need for a "Social Contract", and no need for judgement of good and bad?
"Treat others as you would like to be treated" is derived from first principles
Can you explain a bit more (like what first principles it's derived from, or a reference to where I can read more about it)?
This brings us to universality -- whatever is right (or wrong) in one situation is right (or wrong) in any relevantly similar situation -- from last link:
I read just about all of the links you provided, and I didn't find anything that explains WHY universality and logic have anything to do with moral discourse.
Which brings me to another thought. Is this a "prescriptive" discussion about morals? Are there any moral systems that adhere to logic and universalizability? If not then why do you call this system "moral", i.e. what does it have to do with existing moral systems?
"Thou shalt not covet thy neighbors wife" is another example of a cookbook rule that is not universalizable.
Why isn't this universalizable? Is it because it's not parameterized? What similar kinds of "universalizable" statements exist that are similar to this "cookbook" one? How about "Thou shalt not covet thy neighbor's {A}" ?
I've got some more higher-level questions, but they depend on your answers to these questions. I think I'm starting to catch on.
Thanks!
Ben

This message is a reply to:
 Message 60 by RAZD, posted 04-02-2005 7:22 PM RAZD has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 69 by RAZD, posted 04-23-2005 10:01 AM Ben! has replied

  
Ben!
Member (Idle past 1429 days)
Posts: 1161
From: Hayward, CA
Joined: 10-14-2004


Message 70 of 95 (202508)
04-26-2005 3:41 AM
Reply to: Message 69 by RAZD
04-23-2005 10:01 AM


Re: real morality based on reason, logic and universalizability
RAZD,
Thanks for the answers. Still struggling, so I'll try and be more explicit (read wordy) this time.
First of all, I want to make explicit that I think your presentation here is a prescriptive account of morality, and not a descriptive account. Do you have any problem with this statement?
unless you think morals extend into how we treat the environment ... (I think that is a different issue (but similar): morals are generally only applied to human relations. Perhaps that comes under ethics, and is certainly dependant on understanding ecological relationships.)
Yes, somehow you caught onto the direction I was thinking. Nice! As far as I know, morals are a system for determining right and wrong. As such, I think it's important to know how we treat environmental concerns, including other animals.
By the way, I looked up Wikipedia on "morality" and "ethics," and I honestly couldn't understand the difference. So I don't understand how you're trying to divide between the two. Can you make the distinction for me?
Rouseau derives it (the "golden" rule).
Sorry, what I was asking for is kind of two things:
- What are the specific first principles which are being used to derive the "golden rule" ?
OR
- What book / section does Rousseau do his derivation? If I knew that, I could read the section and see his derivation, and see what first principles he's using.
Morals (supposedly) apply to all people with equal force
OK, we're getting there. You say "supposedly." I want to ask, according to whom? Is it part of the definition of morality? Or is it just that a specific group of people make this claim about their morals?
I can't find any reason, given the dictionary and Wikipedia descriptions of morality, to think that Morals are supposed to apply to all people with equal force, or that they're supposed to be universal in any other way.
This is extremely important to me, because I personally don't think that morality is in any way the domain of deductive logic.
When Socrates asks those around him "what is justice?" I think he's showing a lack of deductive "declarative" knowledge about morality. However, that's not the only kind of knowledge out there.
As people say, "I know good and bad when I see it" and, to a large degree, I think they're right. And that is DESPITE the fact that I know most (I would say all) people make mistakes, or, when you examine their patterns with logic, seem illogical or even contradictory.
I'm working on a good way to formulate and express all this, but in the meantime I really want to understand your methodology. As I see it, you're proposing a new system of morality, not describing an existing one. Either way I'm interested, I'm just trying to understand clearly all the places we diverge and, importantly, why we diverge.
Good. That certainly eliminates the sexist bias in the original. Still does not rule out some coveting, though. How about "Thou shalt not covet another's {A}" or just "don't covet what is not yours" ...
I'll get back to this in the future. Rather than start presenting my own view, I want to focus on your view and find out how it works. So I'll keep listening for now and add this to my model of how your proposed morality works.
Thanks!
Ben

This message is a reply to:
 Message 69 by RAZD, posted 04-23-2005 10:01 AM RAZD has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 73 by RAZD, posted 04-26-2005 10:55 PM Ben! has not replied

  
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