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Author Topic:   Is Gay Marriage Immoral?
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 62 of 134 (335381)
07-26-2006 6:32 AM
Reply to: Message 55 by Nuggin
07-25-2006 11:49 AM


Re: bigotry
I don't think gay sex or marriage is immoral, but I do not understand how you can argue that it can't be such (in an objective way) to someone else?
Telling people they cannot quote the bible to construct their argument, is simply telling people they must use your criteria rather than their own. And why should that be? The reason why there are so many different opinions on morality is because people use many different criteria!
If you call for outlawing all people from using public restrooms because "that's disgusting" -- NOT bigotted.
If you call for outlawing black people from using public restrooms because "that's disgusting" -- bigotted.
To be honest blacks were not necessarily barred from all restrooms. Remember that they were often given separate facilities. Notice that we currently force women to use separate bathrooms from men because "that's disgusting"... is that bigotry? It appears to be according to your criteria.
In fact, I'd love to see a rational explanation on how use of separate bathrooms based on sex is any different than race.
If you call for an end to all marriage -- not bigotted
If you call for an end to inter-racial marriage -- bigotted
But we do not allow for multiple partner marriages, or between people who are related, or below certain ages, etc etc... are those bigoted? If not, why not?
In the end, "immoral" is simply saying you don't like something. As long as we allow laws to be constructed on moral beliefs then people may legitimately outlaw (or prevent from legal support) things they do not like.
The underlying problem is not what counts as bigotry, in the form of separating groups based on classes, as we all do it somewhere and it isn't rational. The problem is allowing legal bodies to act as moral instruments.

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 55 by Nuggin, posted 07-25-2006 11:49 AM Nuggin has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 63 by capeo, posted 07-26-2006 9:54 AM Silent H has replied
 Message 64 by AlienInvader, posted 07-26-2006 10:48 AM Silent H has replied
 Message 68 by happy_atheist, posted 07-26-2006 1:03 PM Silent H has not replied
 Message 69 by Nuggin, posted 07-26-2006 1:45 PM Silent H has replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 78 of 134 (335639)
07-27-2006 5:55 AM
Reply to: Message 63 by capeo
07-26-2006 9:54 AM


Re: bigotry
in a realistic sense societies must agree on a moral basis for lawmaking.
Actually they don't. Even your list of common laws are able to derived without an appeal to moral position.
The concept is of human rights being those rights claimed by an individual for themself. One then tries to find logical (and sometimes emotional) solutions to situations where such rights collide between individuals.
Thus the right to kill someone who offends you conflicts with another's right to life. There is no moral position in this. The ability to maintain a functional society, or a cohesive one would realistically err on the side of a right to living rather than the right to kill.
Its a debate on how to work out these issues and not which morals need to be instituted. I personally believe most people have lost that distinction, which has led to many of the problems we face as a nation.
As already mentioned societal morals must revolve around that which is best for society as a whole not a faction of it, even if that faction is the majority, and these moral imperatives ideally have to be minimal.
How does one decide what morals result in the best for society, when the vast majority disagree? To be honest, while wholly supportive of gays and even the most extreme (read offensive) of gay lifestyles, I cannot think of how I could argue it is in society's best interest to let gays do what they want.
Gays are a rather minimal population and any effects would be generally nil toward society if we denied them every and all freedoms.
Its only from a position of defending individual rights, being that I grant rights to others as I take for myself... and so argue from the level of the individual... that defense of gays makes sense. Disallowing their freedoms would not only deny them rights we take for ourselves, but set a precedent for the stripping of rights of others.
We also have things that revolve around a societies agreement of when adulthood begins. Basically eighteen in the US. Any society needs to set a limit on this for its own protection, and the protection of its youth as well.
I'm not sure why a society NEEDS to set such limits at all, most specifically to protect youths. The general reason for such concepts were to protect others in a practical way from the indiscretions of youths and NOT the other way around.
Allowing a 4 year old to drive a car, sign contracts without any parental guidance, and vote on a representative in congress does not seem to make much sense for anyone on the other side of that 4 year old. They are physically incapable of controlling a multi ton vehicle, are unlikely to stick with a contractual obligation they make to you on their own, and generally will not have the wisdom to pick out a qualified candidate.
It is only a very recently that people have decided to view these restrictions on children as some sort of protective device for them.
About the only moral position, though still focusing on the practical issue of conflicting rights, is when a child is thought to be capable of emancipation from parental rights. The rest is an culturally arbitrary judgement of mental competence. Morals may always influence such a judgement, but they don't have to.
In a rational society the basis of making anything illegal must be that there is vast evidence that letting the act happen is so extremely detrimental to society that it warrants restricting freedom
Someone could kill me with no extreme impact on society. Indeed one could kill any individual and even large minority populations without affecting society as a whole. Heck, sometimes it could be a practical improvement for the remaining majority population.
The focus should be on the detriment to the individual and their ability to assert their rights, if we are going to claim something should be illegal. Otherwise individuals get lost in the focus on society.
In essence you are making a slide into an argument for the rights of a society. I realize you are covering the potentially lethal problems of this by appealing to enlightened secular moral thinking... unfortunately morals are for individuals and there is no one form of enlightened secular moral thinking.
In fact you are sort of holding a contradictory position by suggesting that people can hold enlightened moral positions for their gov't and also a strict highly unenlightened moral position in their home. That would likely make no sense to them, and even I am left scratching my head. If they are to believe gov't is capable of setting some moral standards then the idea that they should be restricted to those that most effect society becomes a bit circular on your part. They believe the morals they hold DO effect society in the same way you believe crimes you dislike effect society.
The elegant solution, which ironically was what came out of the enlightenment, is that gov't and morality should be treated separately. That is the only way for a society with truly diverse moral positions to remain cohesive as a diverse society, with an emphasis on maintaining an individual's rights.
While I may have been longwinded, and against your position I hope you see what I am driving at, and understand that I actually liked your post. It was a nice argument for a position I happen to disagree with.

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 63 by capeo, posted 07-26-2006 9:54 AM capeo has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 84 by capeo, posted 07-27-2006 10:07 AM Silent H has replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 79 of 134 (335646)
07-27-2006 6:24 AM
Reply to: Message 64 by AlienInvader
07-26-2006 10:48 AM


Re: bigotry
fundamentally different machinery.
That does not make sense at all. First of all some women can use urinals, and some guys never do, and certainly no guys need to. Why could you not have a single bathroom with just regular toilets? Or what would be the reason you couldn't have a single bathroom with both toilets and urinals usable by both sexes (since you already do have this for men)?
Plus we're disgusting, i doubt woman would want to inhabit the same... conditions that we leave our restrooms in.
Ringo was dead right. Most people familiar with having to clean bathrooms generally note that women are much more disgusting than men. The uhhhh... conditions... I have personally seen in women's rooms are simply without compare.
Yeah guys may have some pee splashed about more, and certainly more grafitti, but that is not the end all of messes that people can make and leave.
The difference in race is that, though racists can claim that they are "superior" there is no real physical difference between the races.
There are physical differences between the races, that's what allows us to identify people of different races. And if you start arguing that some people can pass as different races, the same goes for different sexes.
Believe it or not we all function the same way. Our urinary tracts have a singular opening that pass liquid waste in generally a stream, and our assholes are all the same no matter which sex. It can all be collected the same way.
And I might ask what physical difference has to do with "superiority", that leaves the impression that women could be logically considered inferior because they do have more physical differences.
In any case a person not wanting to share a toilet with a person of a different race may be completely separate from feelings of superiority/inferiority even if they have those feelings as well. People really can feel uncomfortable engaging in that activity (and many others) around people they "feel" are different than themselves.
The segregation of toilet activities boils down to the same thing, someone does not feel comfortable doing that with someone who is identifiably different around. It is totally irrational no matter the chosen criteria.
I agree that races may feel more upset when it is imposed upon them. But if it was part of their culture then they'd generally accept it as we do sexual segregation. In fact many did at the time. Perhaps our current child deification/protection culture will soon result in segregation of bathrooms based on age.

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 64 by AlienInvader, posted 07-26-2006 10:48 AM AlienInvader has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 82 by kongstad, posted 07-27-2006 8:13 AM Silent H has replied
 Message 87 by AlienInvader, posted 07-27-2006 11:02 AM Silent H has replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 80 of 134 (335658)
07-27-2006 7:35 AM
Reply to: Message 69 by Nuggin
07-26-2006 1:45 PM


Re: bigotry
I WANT people to use their criteria, but I want it to be logical criteria. I don't care if their opinion coincides with the Bible, but their logical arguement can not simply be - "Homosexuality is immoral because the Bible sez so. QED."
I got your point and I am trying to explain that you are making a mistake. As nwr has already pointed out no moral position can be derived wholly from logic.
Every moral position, begins or involves some wholly irrational element, even if connected by logical structures to a conclusion.
If one begins with the position that the bible posits moral absolutes then the sentence above is a valid logical claim. Find me one moral position in support of homosexuality which doesn't involve an irrational (nonevidentiary nonlogical) belief.
The Bible says that working on the Sabbath is immoral (MORE immoral than gay sex), yet the people proposing an anti-gay marriage ammendment are collecting signatures on a Saturday.
While I agree is a valid critique of many against homosexuality, it is different than arguing that their argument against homosexuality lacks logic. All this means is that they appear to be inconsistent in which rules they uphold.
A possible defense... which I have heard but do not want to go into beyond this post... is that later writings in the New Testament put aside some laws while reinforcing sexual prosriptions (most especially homosexuality) or that they are simply reacting to attempts to advance homosexuality and wouldn't be doing anything if the status quo had remained. Its not like they chose to suddenly focus on homosexuality compared to everything else at this point in time. There really is a movement of homosexuals in support of removing restrictions which are in place.
If someone on the forums wants to claim that they adhere to EVERY rule in the Bible, then I'll let them off the hook for having to pose a logical argument.
What is your moral system and do you adhere to all of its rules? One sometimes makes errors or are forced to choose between one wrong in order to prevent a greater wrong.
Inconsistency of practice is itself not an argument against the logic of a theoretical position.
This is clearly wrong. I don't like cheese. Cheese is not immoral.
Heheheh... check your logic before you wreck your logic. I said all moral claims are statements of personal preference, I did not say that all statements of personal preference are moral statements.
Generally discussions of preference based on immediate sensory aesthetic (taste, texture, etc) are different than those of reflective (mental) aesthetics. They have the same logical standing or "meaning"... it still says "I don't like it"... but their nature is categorically different.
If you tell me you are a utilitarian (most good for the most people)and that your morality derives from that, then I know that it is moral for you to kill a mass murderer because his one death prevents the death of twenty other people.
Utilitarianism allows for the persecution of gays. Most people are not gay and indeed most are offended by them. Furthermore, it can be argued that discipline in the form of sexual ascetism is beneficial for society, at the very least by forming a cultural unity.
But that is to suggest utilitarianism is somehow a rational system. What is the difference between saying that "what is good for the most people" and "what is good according to the Bible"? In fact how does one even define what counts as "good" for the most people?
Utilitarian morality is NOT a purely logical system, it has an irrational element, and indeed many utilitarians can also act contrary to principles. Eugenics is clearly an effort which could provide benefits for the most people, so would genetic engineering, yet would all utilitarians practice these things?
I could also predict how you would behave in other situations. Say, trying to decide who gets food and water when there isnt enough to go around.
Sometimes you could sometimes you couldn't. If you have enough water to keep many people alive but not enough to improve your societal situation, which is "right". One allows life to exist while the other sacrifices life for greater amounts of life in the future (or perhaps just greater security).
How does a utilitarian decide whether to have an abortion, or to allow people to smoke in restaurants?
if you moral standing is simply "I believe in what's said in the Bible" then you are unable to deal with new situations.
But that's not all they believe and I don't think that is what any of them say. If it is specifically in the Bible then they will rely on those specific items, but many daily decisions rely on general principles stated in the Bible, or prayer to God for personal guidance.
In the end "I believe in what is good for the most people" is even more vague a moral hitching post than relying on the Bible. What counts as "good", "most", and "people"?
The Bible says NOTHING about gay marriage. It just says that gay people shouldn't lay down near each other.
Uhhhh, it doesn't say "near" each other and it is clearly using euphemisms for sexual activity. You are right that it doesn't say anything about gay marriage but why would it have to when it proscribes gay sexual activity, repeatedly derides it as leading to destruction, and only discusses marriage in the context of a woman and man?
That's like saying the Bible must condone eating pork and shellfish and establishing restaurant chains based around those things, because it doesn't give recipes for food made from pork or shellfish. Given that they are forbidden, discussion of activities which involve them would be illogical... right?
Look, I sympathize with your disagreement with these people, but your argument against them in this case is flawed. They simply don't have the same moral system you do, and it is not logically possible to judge one moral system using another, nor by appeals to the inconsistency of practice of principles by individuals.

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 69 by Nuggin, posted 07-26-2006 1:45 PM Nuggin has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 81 by Modulous, posted 07-27-2006 8:00 AM Silent H has replied
 Message 86 by Nuggin, posted 07-27-2006 10:55 AM Silent H has replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 91 of 134 (335920)
07-28-2006 4:12 AM
Reply to: Message 81 by Modulous
07-27-2006 8:00 AM


Re: Constitution
To avoid the potential constitutional issue, a non-religious reason should be advanced for the ban.
At first I was about to agree wholeheartedly, but then while writing I realized there were a few quibbles. I do agree that those who are passing sexual laws in this country are making morals laws, generally based on Biblical morality or modern sentiments derived directly from Biblical morality. Thus I do not think such laws are worthy, regardles of being constitutional.
However I cannot agree that it is establishing a religion. Many cultures, to be honest all cultures, have defined marriage as between a man and a woman, even those that agreed with homosexuality. The only minor exceptions have been those which defined some men as women and so able to be married by men, and a fragmentary "brotherhood" ceremony which in some sense reflected marriage ceremonies which existed for only a very brief amount of time in a local region and has little evidence it was commonly used.
Homosexual practices have certainly been tolerated and even extolled over long periods of times throughout different cultures, but have been banned even outside monotheistic cultures.
Thus we can see that culture as much as religion can play a role in such laws. If one wants to find similar justifications, ask someone who supports gay rights why other sexual minorities should be oppressed including the inability to be married. They usually don't suggest the Bible as their source, but it comes solely from cultural/moral centers.
It is certainly an establishment of a philosophical standpoint on sex, but it could involve many different philosophies and religions rather than a singular overarching one. I agreed with the Supreme Court's decision that laws against homosexuality itself were not justified based on equal treatment protections, rather than whether those motivated to ban it were choosing any specific religion to promote.

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 81 by Modulous, posted 07-27-2006 8:00 AM Modulous has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 95 by Modulous, posted 07-28-2006 5:18 AM Silent H has replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 92 of 134 (335923)
07-28-2006 4:16 AM
Reply to: Message 82 by kongstad
07-27-2006 8:13 AM


Re: bigotry
I've cleaned many a toilet with the pads plastered to the wall, and when the blood has dried, it can take some scrubbing to get of the wall!
Shudder... the horror, the horror. Yeah I'll let your example stand. I've yet to meet a person who has cleaned both men's and women's rooms who have not noted the difference and had significant gross-out stories to tell.
But the one thing that puzzled me is how many women go to the bathroom at the same time as other women, usually in packs of friends. It made me wonder how all of these things were done with others around, especially friends?

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 82 by kongstad, posted 07-27-2006 8:13 AM kongstad has not replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 93 of 134 (335939)
07-28-2006 4:38 AM
Reply to: Message 87 by AlienInvader
07-27-2006 11:02 AM


Re: bigotry
Bottlenecks suggest creating a bigger bathroom facility and does not has nothing to do with whether there are just toilets or toilets and urinals. Obviously if one is just peeing it doesn't matter if one uses a urinal or toilet... or does the presence of a toilet force one into other activities?
Also, what does desire for privacy mean for anything? Okay you put stalls on urinals then too. I've seen that in men's rooms and frankly I prefer that.
And as i said before, nobody enforces segregation of bathrooms based on sex. Women use the men's room all the time.
Right. As a guy I'll walk into women's rooms at whim and tell them you told me it's okay. Think that'll float? Think I won't get kicked out or arrested? Yeah some women can use men's rooms and it is tolerated, but it isn't always, and it almost never cuts the other way.
Blacks did get to use white's rooms in the same way... when someone white didn't care about the rules and allowed them to use it. And by the way I don't believe the restroom racial segregation was a law, so police would not have been enforcing it in and of themselves.
I maintain that sexual "segregation" is justified in a practical context with little regards to bigotry... we don't pee the same way, and practical constraints probably prohibit the "lots of toilets and lots of urinals" thing.
While you have asserted this position, you have provided no logical argument in support of it. There is still no reason why separate urinary openings would justify different restrooms.
Oh by the way, you may not be aware but there is a physical condition where men's urethras do not open at the tip and instead open under or back toward the shaft, forcing guys to use sit down methods of peeing. If they can use men's rooms, why couldn't women.
I mean really what is different between a women's toilet and a men's toilet that they require a separate room for usage?
Privacy and safety issues are EXACTLY the same issues which can be used across race as across sex. And they usually stem from the same place... paranoia.
Yeah they've got urethras and all that, but they can't really aim. We have actual developmental differences. Unless of course you're telling me, women can impregnate each other now.
Seeing all the pee next to urinals reminds me how little many guys can aim. In any case you may not be aware but the genitals of a woman are formed from the same parts that go to form a man's. Their urethra simply does not develop up the shaft, and as I pointed out some men share that problem. And some men actually have cocks so small they are practically large clits. So what?
And as far as impregnation, are you suggesting this comes from peeing and shitting in the same bathroom? If you mean rape, men can rape women in a woman's room as much as in a combined room. Indeed I might point out the irony that within your own argument you claim women use men's rooms all the time... so is it a danger or not? Is it necessary or not?
You're moving back and forth... hey just like an alien invader! Now I get it.
Edited by holmes, : less an "n"

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 87 by AlienInvader, posted 07-27-2006 11:02 AM AlienInvader has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 101 by AlienInvader, posted 07-28-2006 11:18 AM Silent H has replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 94 of 134 (335943)
07-28-2006 5:00 AM
Reply to: Message 86 by Nuggin
07-27-2006 10:55 AM


Re: bigotry
Wow! Long post. Won't try to address it all.
That's okay, my window for posting again may close today anyway. I'm time limited these days.
The problem is that the people using the Bible as a crutch (No crutch is a bad analogy, since people using crutches tend to have at least one other leg) are not adhereing to the same singular rule - what the Bible says, goes.
I did address this point specifically. That some may be inconsistent in their practice does not make any singular rule they are enforcing less logical. As I pointed out, even utilitarians do NOT usually stick to all the mandates such a moral position generates.
Also, in this case they are being confronted with a movement not of their own doing, and trying to overturn longheld laws. Thus their activity is reactive and not proactive. If gays were not challenging them they wouldn't be up in arms at all.
the argument - "Bible says it's okay" is not sufficient to make US Law.
That I do agree with. But given the ability of gov't to set moral standards... a practice I disagree with but liberals have been advancing for over a century... they can say it is an immoral practice worthy of criminal punishment, regardless of where that belief stems from.
People pointed out that denying an entire group of people their rights is immoral. Clearly, this is a mirror of that situation.
Well that's not quite true. Slavery classified a person as a nonperson, and so stripped them of all rights. That is different than classifying an action as illegal and something no one can engage in, and further to deny services that might encourage such acts.
Homosexuality is an act and not something like a race which has NO inherent activity associated with it. The fact that a minority population has compulsions to such activities, and even if considered "natural" to them, would not argue that they are some sort of race whose practices must be protected. After all kleptomaniacs and pyromaniacs may have just as ingrained desires but we would want to protect ourselves from them. Same goes for unfortunate cases like Typhoid Mary, nice lady that she might be, we don't want her cooking for others whether she really wants to or not.
One may then argue that homosexual acts are different than those other acts, and you may have a valid argument, but it is different than an argument that orientation is like race. And I might add such an argument has logical repercussions which most liberals are not going to swallow, and be just as irrational and inconsistent as the bible thumpers.
After all, why are we clammering for just gay rights as if that particular sexual orientation is different than all other sexual minorities? Why aren't we clammering for general sexual rights?
Of course when I say "we" I mean society at large.
I AM arguing for general sexual rights and for all I know you'd support general sexual rights as well. Unfortunately many in the gay community do not, and I know this because I mingle with them as part of my sexual minority (bisexual hedonist). You can even see it in posts by gay supporters at evc. Many just want their desire to be treated as "normal" while kicking the shit out of some other group based on their "weird" desires. Apparently other ingrained desires do not count as racial status to them.

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 86 by Nuggin, posted 07-27-2006 10:55 AM Nuggin has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 100 by Nuggin, posted 07-28-2006 10:38 AM Silent H has replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 96 of 134 (335967)
07-28-2006 6:33 AM
Reply to: Message 84 by capeo
07-27-2006 10:07 AM


Re: bigotry
Just to let you know, my posting ability is very limited these days and I may not be able to respond to your next post (at least not for a while). My apologies, but the real world demands more of my attention.
They're are many cohesive and functional societies whose laws arise from agreed upon moral underpinnings that in no way afford individual rights to large segments of its population. In fact, individual rights need not exist in a functioning society per se.
You are absolutely correct on this point and I apologize if it seemed I was arguing against it. I do agree that fully functional societies may base their laws on morals.
My point is that the US gov't was NOT one of those gov'ts and its founders argued that a more coherent and longlasting gov't would be one which avoided such practices (given their experiences). Religious (which at that time meant moral) divisions were responsible for many problems and so the anabaptist position of separation of church and state was championed.
They specifically discussed the concept of rights as the basis for our govt, and stated that a gov't which tells a citizen how it is best to live is an offensive one.
doesn't arise from agreed upon group moral standards ("God given rights"?).
This was a philosophical position about the state of human life. They said given by nature as much as by God (or nature's God). Its only bible thumpers today who are trying to turn it into some moral commandment from God. The founding fathers specifically said that those are the rights we inherently have, meaning by our existence, but went on to state that it is only by OUR preservation of them that we can enjoy them. God's not going to give us anything.
Realistically, there is no difference betweens morals and personal law
You assert this but have not presented a satisfactory argument in support of it. I agree that personal law can be created based on morals, just that it doesn't have to be, and in the case of the US should not be.
The actual issue I was addressing is that societal morals (the basis that governing laws are established upon) must have a logical basis and taken to thier most logical end you, I believe, would arrive at the most rights for the individual by maintaning only the minimum of societal laws. A result I think we'd agree is ideal.
Morals never have a logical basis. They can have logical structure but always hinge on personal desires/tastes as their basis.
While I agree that a minimum of societal laws is preferable, it has NOTHING to do with any moral position. My personal moral system, which is developed from premonotheistic systems, does not involve moral pronouncements of good or bad at all. And yes that involves killing as well as whether people should be more "free".
If hardcore Xianity with full inquisition came into force would not be anymore right or wrong to me than a hardcore liberal ideology with its form of societal indoctrination or that a hardcore anarchism came into being with no laws at all.
My position on gov't comes from an agreement with those who studied the natures of gov'ts and noted that diversity has never harmed a society, and that enforced unicultural standards usually resulted in fragmentation and societal setbacks.
I do prefer periods of less violent conflict and loss of knowledge and so support gov'ts which involve a focus on individual liberty, rather than social protection.
I see them as the logical basis from which a person would make choices and act if not under the restriction of group (or sometimes called societal) morals. Under this definition institued law comprises group morals for a society. In most cases inserting the word law where I used group morals would probably yield a stance you'd find more agreeable.
I see what you are saying and it is a valid position, though I disagree and feel my position is equally valid... and perhaps preferable. Once laws are viewed as an extension of morals, then people have a right to be offended when their gov'ts laws reject or hinder their own morality.
If people view the gov'ts business as inherently outside morals, and instead focus only on a practical preservation of YOUR ability to enact YOUR morals on a personal level, then it isn't so offensive when the laws allow someone to do something you might find morally detrimental to society as a whole.
One doesn't have to say "you are bad" so as to punish a killer or thief. It is enough to say that they have violated the rights of another, which they have agreed not to do by social contract (remember our founding fathers were influenced by social contract theory). Gov't laws are the negotiated contractual obligations between citizens, which is why certain things are banned from use. A majority could always agree to a contractual obligation some minority would not... protected rights removes or at least hinders that possibility.
A society NEEDS such concepts most definitely to protect itself but most certainly to protect its youth as well. By setting such a limit this stops unscrupulous adults from taking advantage of youth via unfair labor practices, unfair marriage practices that take advantage impressionable minds, unfair military practices and much more thus preserving its youth as best as it can for education, which should be the foundation of any society.
Given that societies have functioned without such concepts sort of undercuts your blank assertion that they need them. All you did in the above is state your own moral position which is certainly the modern belief which traces its roots to the Progressive movement of the late 1800s.
What's sort of frightening to me is that you appear to view the role of children as cogs mandating the best educational environment so as to work for society, rather than as individuals that should be free to make decisions and learn from life including potential errors regardless of what is "best" for society. You think that is less exploitative? All you've done is trade forced matrimony and physical labor by one group, for monasticism and mental labor by another. You have not advanced the concept of freeing children to do what they want.
In a rational society the basis of making anything illegal must be that there is vast evidence that letting the act happen is so extremely detrimental to society that it warrants restricting freedom
That position is contradictory to what you just said about needing to have age based laws. Even during the worst periods of child labor abuse, society itself was not being harmed to an extent that could be classified as "extremely detrimental". Indeed much of society benefitted from such activity.
I would have thought my point was obvious here , that yes, one killing would not have a detrimental effect on society, but if killing was legal in any and all instances
You missed my point. I was trying to suggest that while your position appears to support laws against killing, in fact it supports laws requiring the killing of many individuals. If the focus of govt is what is best for society, rather than the individual, and moral considerations are worthy, there is no bar to the sanctioned elimination of whole groups of minorities.
Only by limiting the focus of gov't to individual rights, and not by societal engineering, can one avoid such purges and persecutions. Witness the War on Drugs if nothing else.
If people in government could not hold enlightened moral positions while the general populous couldn't then the US would have started as a theocracy and still be one today.
Read their writings. There were theocratic communities within the colonies. The founding fathers cut the gordian knot by removing moral position taking from gov't. Thus their moral positions could not effect their neighbor's behavior just as much as their neighbor could not effect their own. It was not an idea of "let's have the least morals imposed as possible, and those that are based on enlightenment principles, such that society is bettered and most people can live free."
I see nothing circular about my argument. In the end I'm a proponent of a minimal of moral standards based solely on logical precepts derived from the most information possible. Following this criteria you arrive at the most individual rights and you would certainly arrive at the conclusion that gay marriage is not immoral except in the most limited of moral standards ordained by religion.
You have not set out how logic and information ends in your conclusions.
In any case, if I agree with your position that people need to be protected from personal choice, in order to prevent possible abuse or help society become stronger, then I see no reason why people could not logically bar gay marriage on those same accounts.
In fact, that was the argument for antigay laws and regulations to begin with. It was seen as a potential weakening of one's intellectual and physical health, which I might add continues to be true if looked at from a purely statistical point of view as gays do suffer from greater levels of physical and psychological problems, and its encouragement could be viewed as just as detrimental. Why not? Your argument for age laws is based on the same thing... potential for problems based on some statistical correlations or personal moral repulsion to an activity (and thus it must be unhealthy).
Let's say all people were encouraged to focus their sexuality on procreation and so not using others just for sexual pleasure. Wouldn't that have a benefit for society and reduce the potential for exploitation all around? Or at least couldn't it be logically argued that way?
Certainly, individual morality, but philosophically (and realistically) law is group morality, it's an agreed up set of social rules that the vast majority of a social group will abide by even in deference to their individual morality.
I don't want to be killed or stolen from, thus my contract with other members of a society is that they should not do such to me nor me to them. That is it, regardless of whether I think killing or theft is moral or not... and let me point out there are cases where people feel both are morally justified yet agree the act is criminal.
Laws regarding taxes and driving are equally contractual agreements with no (or very few) possible moral grounds.
Sorry for the long post, but your response was well written and deemed a good response. Thanks for taking the time. We both agree that individual rights are key, by the way, I just think we differ philosophically as to how a society realistically arrives there.
I agree and return the compliment. I'm sorry if my time requirements prevent me from much further discussion. As I stated before, I think your view is valid, just not wholly correct regarding the intended form of the US gov't (there is a difference), and not preferable.
It is very easy to mix morals and laws, and I see the enlightenment and the formation of the US gov't as a part of the drive to remove the two from each other as explicitly as possible. Since it is possible to construct laws without moral underpinnings, and instead focus on what freedoms people take for themselves based on personal desire which is the concept of the social contract, morals are superfluous except for how one lives one's own life.
Again, thanks for the debate. Well written.

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 84 by capeo, posted 07-27-2006 10:07 AM capeo has not replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 97 of 134 (335974)
07-28-2006 6:58 AM
Reply to: Message 95 by Modulous
07-28-2006 5:18 AM


Re: Constitution
Culture/tradition has never been a reason that has stood up to progression. Reformists will almost inevitably change such unanchored justifications through erosion.
Ironically progressive movements are usually just the inventors of new cultural traditions, equally devoid of a rational basis. In other words we stop kicking one group and start picking on another.
That's why I ask for a reason, ie a thought out explanation which could justify no gay marriage.
There is no justification for banning polygamous, incestuous, nor minor-involved marriages. There may be some ad hoc suggestions of "protecting" some group, but that has no real basis in fact. Homosexuals have shown statistically greater levels of mental and physical health issues and capable of predatory behavior. That is over and above things like those involved in polygamous, incestuous, or minor-involved sexual relationships. Whoops. And believe me that actually suprised me.
If those with statistically less problems can be banned for their protection, it makes no sense to not ban those with statistically more problems. And appeals to the fact that their problems stem from social sanctions is no help, as the same goes for those other groups.
Whoops. Yet where is the progressive movement asking for all sexual rights and rights for marriage?
Yeah, I think gays should be able to have sex and get married if they want. But so should lots of other people, and many gays and "progressives" keep telling me how those others shouldn't have a chance. It is the same as always. There is no logic, just changes in taste and so target groups.
Back to the topic, gay marriage can still be immoral to those who are religious and those who are not. As long as sexual ascetism is prefered, or hedonism denied, then any sex outside of procreation or supportive of procreation becomes less moral, and a potential detriment for society to indulge in and encourage. Remember that homosexual acts really are choosing sexual gratification over otherwise productive endeavours.
Blow jobs and anal sex between heterosexuals would not be as "damaging" as one can still have vaginal sex within that encounter (and so procreate), and in any case one is tying oneself in with a partner where vaginal sex will more often occur and so result in procreation.
If you suggest that means infertile people should not have sex, then you'd be right. That's what that position logically means. That people don't go after infertile couples does not reduce the logical validity that homosexuality is immoral. Again see the flipside of the pro gay movement inconsistently not supporting other minorities.

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 95 by Modulous, posted 07-28-2006 5:18 AM Modulous has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 98 by Modulous, posted 07-28-2006 7:18 AM Silent H has replied
 Message 99 by RAZD, posted 07-28-2006 7:55 AM Silent H has not replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 104 of 134 (336267)
07-29-2006 6:21 AM
Reply to: Message 98 by Modulous
07-28-2006 7:18 AM


Re: Constitution
polygamous marriage has been brought up here, I said that there is no direct moral reason for banning polygamous marriage, but there might be good tax related reasons.
What? This makes no sense. A person could just as easily get married to someone else for tax purposes, rather than someone that is already married to someone else. And why couldn't two hetero guys get "married" for the same tax reasons, though not being gay at all? In any case, just as with marriage codes which inherently exclude gays, tax laws were written with the assumption of monogamous heterosexual marriage. That means you are going to use the circular argument that because we based tax credits for marriage on a system that excluded polygamists, should be a reason to identify polygamy as different and so excluded from marriage.
The other two involve illegal acts. If they were legal, I'd see no reason to ban marriages surrounding them.
I can't believe you said this. Hey, homosexuality WAS illegal. It was just made legal in the US within the last couple years. People were clamoring for gay marriage BEFORE THAT. And as I have noted before, in past threads, incestuous and minor related sexual relationships ARE allowed in varying degrees from state to state... though not the same for all states.
In any case your appeal to them being illegal is circular. The question begins if they should be illegal at all! If we are arguing for sexual rights, then it must be based on criteria besides whether it is currently illegal or not. The criteria that was used to free homsexuality from illegality is EQUALLY APPLICABLE to the other acts.
And again this is where cries that antigay activists are somehow inconsistent is hypocrisy. When homosexuality was being made legal the conservative justices pointed out quite correctly that the logic used NECESSARILY meant OTHER sexual minorities should gain the same rights.
The same is being noted by the conservatives against gay marriage. Yet the rallying cry by gay supporters is the same highly inconsistent and illogical argument that one has nothing to do with the others and so no one else can and should get such equal treatment.
If the conservatives are inconsistent for not going after everyone they deem immoral, then liberals are inconsistent for not defending everyone they should be deeming moral (given the cirteria stated for homosexuality).
Lets say the US had not overturned laws against homosexuality a few years back, would you maintain that homosexual marriage should not be pursued in the US?
Which is all fine, but what we are looking for is some reason for denying hedonism or why marriage should be 'productive' (I assume you mean 'baring children'.
Heheheh... I think you mean "bearing" children.
Anyway, denying hedonism can easily be argued as being a good for society as it creates a unified identity as well as focusing potentially negative impulses (sexual or selfish ones) into creative efforts that will build yourself and the nation. Its sort of like the idea that sports people should abstain while in training, or why monks and priests should not engage in sex... or people in the military while on duty (even if not directly fighting)... or why married people should NOT have sex with people besided their partners. This argument can also be seen in liberal "progressive" movements which criticize sexual entertainment, most specifically antiporn feminists.
People commonly accept sexual ascetic beliefs. So what's the logical difference if it is extended to greater lengths? None.
For this group of people the ability for a marriage to produce children is not their justification, so another reason is sought.
Okay, for that group you are right. But that still does not make it illogical for homosexuality to be felt immoral. And in defense of that other group (picking and choosing between gays and infertile couples) they can still argue that they fill the role of natural parents and should not be punished for an inability to conceive. And in any case they would act as role models for others that bonds should be hetero in nature which would increase the likelihood of productive sexuality.
As it is their inability to conceive would not be public knowledge right? So how would you know this other than from a complete hypothetical position. Gays are patently unable to have children.
Tradition and culture are not reasons in themselves to keep a law or enact a law.
While I agree with this sentiment, anyone arguing that laws should reflect morality cannot. Laws against polygamy, incest, and minor-related sexual activities (from now on I am calling them "other sexual minorities") are purely culture related. If they are not, please explain how they are not.
That's when terms like 'unnatural' and 'disgusting' often get thrown around, which are clearly not reasons.
That's the same reasons given for all other sexual minorities. Oh yeah, except the claims to "harm" sometimes brought in by liberals against others, despite the absence of any solid evidence for such claims (still have threads waiting for people to present the evidence). That's not to mention if statistical correlation from sexual pref or activity to mental and physical health is sought... and conservatives have shown this accurately... gays do not come off well. The only response from liberals is that these health issues are fueled by cultural and legal status of gays... which of course holds true for the other sexual minorities which liberals insist should NOT be viewed that way.
I'm happy to learn a good reason for gay marriage ban, I've just yet to see one in this thread or anywhere else. Answers on a postcard to...
Hey, I already gave you one. That you don't think its "good" just means you don't like it. Neither do I frankly, but that doesn't make it less logically sound. As long as tradition or culture (aka morality) is a basis for law then it has a "valid" if not "good" support.
In any case, as I am pointing out the perceived illogic and inconsistency in this matter rests on both sides. You yourself just appealed to tradition and culture to exclude the other sexual minorities legally, while suggesting it shouldn't be so for gays.

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 98 by Modulous, posted 07-28-2006 7:18 AM Modulous has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 107 by Modulous, posted 07-29-2006 8:48 AM Silent H has replied
 Message 108 by happy_atheist, posted 07-29-2006 9:00 AM Silent H has not replied
 Message 110 by berberry, posted 07-29-2006 5:23 PM Silent H has replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 105 of 134 (336272)
07-29-2006 7:06 AM
Reply to: Message 100 by Nuggin
07-28-2006 10:38 AM


Re: bigotry
And if the coloreds didn't get all uppity, we'd never have had a problem there either.
That is an incorrect analogy, and even if it was would not challenge my point. You are claiming inconsistency because they are focusing legal efforts against on one moral position rather than all moral positions they hold. I am pointing out that it only makes sense as people cannot address all possible issues at once and in this case that specific issue is being forced onto their plate. They had already dealt with it. New challenges by OTHERS are making it necessary for them to address it again.
On the flipside you are not addressing the moral inconsistency of the pro gay movement for not supporting the rights of all sexual minorities.
Firstly, gay marriage was present in the past. Not just the distant past, either. There are a couple post on this thread about the topic.
Not in the US, and that is all that matters with regard to what I am talking about. But let me address gay marriage historically.
I saw RAZD made a mistake in referencing Boswell's "research" into a singular gay marriage practice. Its been quite popularized as some argument that gay marriage was acceptable to the church. This was totally disputed a few years back at evc. My suggestion is that everyone take a close look at Boswell's claims and evidence instead of the hype surrounding it. The most you will find is that in a small geographic region, for a short period of time, there was a ceremony which was held extremely rarely (and some question at all) that involved binding two men together in a way that is similar to that of a wedding ceremony. It is not known how any of the people that might have taken part in such a ceremony lived beyond that ceremony, much less that it would be as spouses.
That is nothing like homosexual marriage being an accepted practice for western culture.
The only other homosexual marriage practices I know of... and they are NOT in the western culture... are those where certain men have been categorized as women and so allowed to marry. It is rare and demands a men be considered a women.
Instead they are actively passing laws / attempting to ammend the constitution specicially to deny people the right to enter into a legal contract
Okay, let's be honest here, they are reacting. Would they be doing any of this if there was not a political movement empowering gay rights? They are passing laws to cut off movements attempting to create new laws, and amending the constitution so that judges will have to base any decisions regarding new laws against that.
Firstly, kleptomaniacs ARE allowed to get married. Secondly, compairing homosexuality to a mental illness is a mistake.
I didn't say kleptos weren't. I was suggesting that laws which would encourage such behaviors would not be acceptable to most people. And why can't I consider homosexuality a mental illness? And I want a real reason here.
Both APAs considered it a mental illness until a political campaign got it changed during the 1960-70s. Indeed during the 1800s and early 1900s it was considered worse than we consider sex with children today. Even masturbation was once considered a form of mental illness.
In the 1990s sufficient evidence was produced to show that sex with minors was not inherently harmful and indeed the only major problem appeared to stem from homosexual activity (which led to gender confusion), or violence. This was exactly the same (and stronger) evidence as was used to get homosexuality pulled from the DSM list (as a mental illness). Yet a political movement led by the right and left forced the APAs to reject any concusions from the studies, and so pedophilia is left as a mental illness, and its activities inherently harmful despite NO scientific evidence for this conclusion.
Is the classification of mental illness with regard to sexual orientation and activity a scientific issu or a political one?... the evidence is pretty glaring. If you haven't seen it before check out my thread on the 1998 Rind study controversy for all the details.
Indeed I can still find some psychological organizations that label homosexuality a disorder despite its removal from the DSM.
consentual sex between adults is obviously of a different catagory all together.
If gays are mentally disturbed then they are not engaging in wholly consensual sex. And indeed there are many cases of gay men trying to seduce straight men who are emotionally or psychologically vulnerable.
If two consenting adult males want to enter into a legal contract through the state, pay the $50 and fill out the paperwork. The state has a duty to supply them with a license.
1) Not if its not a law allowing the state to do such a thing.
2) If its not about the sex, then why don't gays get such contracts with people they aren't going to have sex with (namely women)?
3) They can already enter legal contracts with each other, so why do they need to use marriage contracts which are historically defined as male-female?
If a necrophiliac and a kleptomaniac (both living) fill out the paperwork, etc. They deserve a licence too.
The necrophiliac won't get one, even if they have the next of kin's permission. Same goes for bestiality (owner's permission), incest (same person's permission), or with a minor (parent's permission). Oh yeah.. what about polygamists?
Sex has nothing to do with who gets a license. It's not a licence to have sex.
Actually it pretty much was. Sex outside of marriage was itself a crime up until last century. That sex outside of marriage was legaliazed does not change how the marriage laws were originally constructed.
And even in spite of sex outside of marriage being legal, sex with someone besides one's spouse can be illegal when one is married. So in a sense it remains a license, at least to one's partner's sexual behavior. That people choose to allow infidelity does not change the basic nature of the contract.
If sex had nothing to do with it then gays should have no problem with only being able to marry partners of the opposite sex. That they only want to marry someone they want to have sex with is highly indicative sex has quite a bit to do with it.
Again, I support gay rights and even marriage. I'm just pointing out that illogic and hypocrisy stands on both sides, and it is not impossible for a person to logically hold that homosexuality is immoral... even if many who do are not consistent on their moral code.
But let's be honest, this IS an effort to change the traditional understanding of marriage (and what's wrong with that?) to reflect a more modern concept, in essence creating a new tradition, and the people who do not like homosexuality or a changed meaning for marriage are reacting to these efforts.

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 100 by Nuggin, posted 07-28-2006 10:38 AM Nuggin has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 109 by Nuggin, posted 07-29-2006 12:15 PM Silent H has replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 106 of 134 (336279)
07-29-2006 8:13 AM
Reply to: Message 101 by AlienInvader
07-28-2006 11:18 AM


Re: bigotry
urinals take less time, oh and less water.
How does it take less time to pee in a urinal than a toilet. If you have ten people seeking to use 4 toilets, or 2 toilets and 2 urinals, you will only potentially have longer wait times at the latter (less options). I might add that instead of urinals you could just use a trough system which is usable by both. If water is an issue then you get toilets with separate flush buttons for nature of waste (which is useful for men and women).
It doesn't cut the other way because it's never necessary and never happens.
I'm sorry, you are claiming that men never find themselves in a position where they need to use a woman's toilet? Now wait, your claim goes further in that it never has been done. How did you arrive at that conclusion? I know I have had to... and did. Now where is your theory?
i don't think it matters in as much as public norms.
There goes your argument. At least you get it in the end, this is about norms and not about physical necessity.
not quite as easy to use privacy and safety across race. Sexual dimorphism is a little more... pronounced than racial... ??poly-morphism??
So you say. It may be less common that people cross sexual lines but that does not make them any more clear.
... says you. seperate urinary openings justify different toilets. different toilets are facilitated by separate facilities.
You realize you keep reasserting, rather than constructing any sort of argument. How do different openings justify different toilets? Women's toilets are exactly the same as men's toilets. And in what way do different toilets necessitate separate facilities? If your argument is correct then we should have a bathroom for sitdown toilets and one for urinals.
some things were harsher than laws. society was wrong.
Uhhhhh... I didn't say minorities weren't hurt by racism. I said separate toilets weren't by law, any more than separate toilets for women, and minorities were able to use them in the same way people of different sexes use opposite sex bathrooms.
By the way, when bathrooms were first divided based on sex in western culture, were women considered equals with men, and enjoying full rights?
for lack of a better word, the "shaft" makes all the difference.
How? Men can use women's toilets and vice versa because they are identical. Urinals as they are presently designed can be changed to allow all women to use them (more of a trough design seen in some european areas). Or we can just stick with toilets.
i may go back and forth, but at least i'm on target.
I don't know, you seem to be splashing around a bit.
i'm actually highlighting developmental differences, in that it is impossible for women to impregnate women
What does that have to do with the kind of toilet one needs to use? If this is the rape issue, what prevents a rapist from raping a woman in a women's room... the sign on the door?
that i can argue for it at all, whereas i cannot argue for racial segregation, indicates that there is a decent difference between the two.
All this may mean is that you aren't fully thinking through your arguments. Its pretty easy to say "I don't understand X therefore no one can", but its not logical.
That I can argue a difference between a proper argument and your own, indicates there is a decent difference between the two.

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 101 by AlienInvader, posted 07-28-2006 11:18 AM AlienInvader has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 111 by AlienInvader, posted 07-29-2006 8:31 PM Silent H has not replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 112 of 134 (336586)
07-30-2006 6:03 AM
Reply to: Message 110 by berberry
07-29-2006 5:23 PM


Re: Constitution
I have a very difficult time believing that anything could ever be put into the tax code that would make two straight guys want to marry each other.
Okay, think beyond tax regs if you must... though I can see two greedy enough guys looking to do such a thing (I didn't say homophobic heteros after all).
There would certainly be such a reason for guys to do such a thing for immigration purposes, as well as for adoption as a family (even gay) may have an easier time getting adoption or foster family rights than a single man.
As soon as anyone mentions tax and other reasons for dismissing individual rights I tend to roll my eyes, so I'm sure we're in agreement that this shouldn't be used against gays. It's just my point, which it looks like you understood, was that it can't be used against others as well without cutting both ways.

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 110 by berberry, posted 07-29-2006 5:23 PM berberry has not replied

  
Silent H
Member (Idle past 5849 days)
Posts: 7405
From: satellite of love
Joined: 12-11-2002


Message 113 of 134 (336589)
07-30-2006 6:11 AM
Reply to: Message 109 by Nuggin
07-29-2006 12:15 PM


Re: bigotry
I was going to respond to your entire post, but one sentence struck me as so profoundly ridiculous that I will stick solely to it.
Well that's nice. You can't respond to other points so you only respond to the one you feel you can make look ridiculous.
In any case you are wrong. I was addressing your profoundly ludicrous assertion that marriage had nothing to do with sex. If it had nothing to do with sex then gays would NOT care if it did not involve a person they were in a sexual relationship with.
Even your hospital play example misses the point. I'm sure there are lots of people a gay person would want to visit after an accident. Who do they want to GUARANTEE the right to see? The person they are having sex with regularly.
Or are you willing to give a play where someone is married to a same sex partner they have no interest in having sex with because they just WANT the right to do so, without any attraction of that kind?
If you dealt with the rest of my post you would have seen that was what I was driving at.

holmes {in temp decloak from lurker mode}
"What a fool believes he sees, no wise man has the power to reason away." (D.Bros)

This message is a reply to:
 Message 109 by Nuggin, posted 07-29-2006 12:15 PM Nuggin has replied

Replies to this message:
 Message 118 by Nuggin, posted 07-30-2006 3:39 PM Silent H has replied

  
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