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Author | Topic: Gay marriage and the law | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||
New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
The argument to apply this level of scrutiny is that laws banning gay marriage are not gender neutral. It makes the question of whether two people can marry one another turn on their gender. (The objection to this reasoning is that gay marriage bans are gender neutral, they apply equally to men and women. A version of this argument, based instead on race, was considered and rejected by the Court in Loving.) "Gay" is not a label that defines a group of people like the races do. The rejection by the Court of Loving wasn't a version of the argument. Nator is arguing that sexuality follows a bell curve and is not black and white. Assuming this is true, marriage remaining between a man and a women does not deny any protection of the law to any persons. I wouldn't support a law that bans gay marriage, but if the laws as currently written do not allow for it, then I don't have a problem with not making more laws that do allow gay marriage. And that's because not allowing it doesn't violate the 14th amendment and I haven't seen a compelling reason for allowing it.
If anyone else cares to advance what they think is a compelling state interest that is served in banning gay marriage, I'd be delighted to discuss it. I don't really see the need to ban it, but to continue to disallow it is different. There are thousands of laws that refer to marriage and these laws were written with presumptions about what those marriages entail. To simply change marriage so that it does not fit within those presumptions would affect those laws and their ramifications. I think it is safe to assume that there would be negetive consequences to redefining marriage in those laws and to continue to disallow gay marriage would be safer for the govenments interests.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
However, I think you'd be hard pressed to make a convincing argument that gays are not a "discrete and insular minorit[y]" that suffers from a reduced access to the political process as a result of prejudice. I'm not sure I can prove that they are not. Can you show me how they are a "discrete and insular minority" and how they suffer from a reduced access to the political process as a result of prejudice? "Gays" doesn't describe an actual "group of people". Remember that sexuality is a bell curve... Its not black and white.
And it buggers the imagination to say that gays are treated equally when heterosexual couples who fall in love can get married but homosexual couples can't. That's because of what marriage is, not because of some law preventing them. The laws doesn't prevent me, a man, from going on maternity leave, I'm just not capable of doing it. Does that mean that men are being prejudiced against?
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
You can marry the love of your life, but gay people can't? That is clearly discriminatory. Anybody can enter the contract of marriage. "Gay people" is not some group that is discriminated from entering the contract. The contract, however, must be between a man and a women. Its not discriminatory.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
The contract, however, must be between people of the same race. The difference is that that would be discriminatory against black people, while this:
The contract, however, must be between a man and a women. is not discriminatory against anyone because everyone is either a man or a women.
I dunno how the contract works for true hermaphrodites, I suppose they're either. People are of different races and the contract shouldn't be limited to the same race, but being gay doesn't make you not a man or not a women, so the contract doesn't exclude people who are gay.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
Marriage has been defined in a myriad of ways -- including "third genders", polygamy, polyandry, etc. Not in the laws of the United States.
quote: We're not typing about a global, cross-cultural perspective, we're typing about the laws of the United States.
Your "bell curve" crap has already been handily refuted (Message 26). That didn't refute that being gay doesn't make you not a man or not a women, so therefore you wouldn't be excluded from the contract by being gay.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
But you still haven't answered my question. Why should a 20th century American definition of marriage trump all the others? That's the definition that was being used when the laws were written. If you change the definition it will affect thousands of laws.
Isn't it interesting that we managed 200+ years without laws on the books defining marriage? Why do you think that is? The definition was 'understood' to be between a man and women. They failed to see the need for it to be defined. Basically, everybody knew what they were talking about. Why do you think?
Why do you suppose these very recent laws were written to specifically EXCLUDE a group of people? DOMA? The was in response to the 'misunderstanding' of the definition that was understood to be, yet remained undefined. People were using the lack of definition to create another group that was a minority that was being discriminated against. It turns out that the definition that was understood doesn't actually discriminate against gays. If we do need to update the laws, I don't think we should just change the way a single word is defined when it will affect thousands of laws. All the laws need to be updated as well.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
I say again: Immediately support your contention that the law in the US states that homosexuality is an abomination, or retract your disgusting lies. Relax... He wasn't quoting the law. If that's how he interprets what the law says, can't he simply remain wrong? Must he really quote the law conforming exactly to his interpretation? The laws aren't written like people think.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
The only effect it will have on other laws is that gay couples will be included. That's not really very hard to cope with. What makes you so sure?
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
I can't agree with you when you say that laws against gay marriage are not discriminatory. I think that is because you are misunderstanding what discrimination is. According to dictionary.com:
quote: Heterosexuals have a chance of finding a partner that they love and making a public statement of that love, in marriage. Homosexuals don't. Clear discrimination. It is not discrimination because homosexuals are not prohibited from getting married. The problem is that marriage is defined as being between a man and a woman. Being a homosexual does not put you in a group, class, or category that is not a man or a woman so they are not excluded from marriage and they are not being discriminated against. If it was “between the same race” is would be discriminatory because some people don’t belong to a particular race and would be excluded by that definition. Your sexuality doesn’t determine your gender, so having a definition based on gender has nothing to do with your sexuality.
By the way, your point about hermaphrodites in Message 38 is a valid one, despite the semi-serious way you bring it up. Should intersex people be barred from marriage? I’m not entirely sure, but I said before that if they were consider either man or women, or both perhaps, then they would not be discriminated against either. But that is not the topic of this thread.
It amounts to "anyone can marry who they like, so long as my religion says it's OK". I thought that kind of thing was unconstitutional in the States. No it doesn’t, that’s total bullshit. Religion doesn’t have anything to do with it, we are talking about the law. Stop being disingenuous.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
Starting to get the picture, CS? I see the picture that you are painting, but it is full of bias and conspiracy theory and does not reflect reality. It doesn’t even address my argument and is irrelevant enough that I see no reason to address it specifically.
DOMA was backlash. That’s what I said in Message 49 quote: DOMA passed in 1996. Signed by Bill Clinton . just sayin’ What are some other things that were "understood" about marriage for the most of history of this nation? No miscegenation. No divorce. No contraception. No legal rights (property, child custody, contractual, control of earnings, etc.) for women. No criminal or civil liability for women. No such thing as marital rape. Until 1978! Age of consent: 10 years old. Marriage as a cultural norm, as a familial relationship, and as a legal status has done nothing but change. It changed because those things were discriminatory.
A 2004 study by the Congressional Budget Office found 1,138 federal statutes are related to marriage benefits. To name a few: Inheritance rights Insurance Taxes Child custody Child support Alimony Domestic violence Adoption Property inheritance Family leave Suing for wrongful death (and any other tort or law related to spousal relationships) Hospital visitation Health care decision-making Durable power of attorney All the more reason to not take changes to the definition of marriage too lightly .
Marriage is a civil RIGHT that is afforded ALL our citizens. The right to pursue happiness, remember? Exactly! As marriage, as defined, is afforded to all our citizens and does not discriminate against any group, there’s no reason to change it.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
Still not getting it? Are you that dense? I get it just fine, you're the one who is too dense to get it.
It is not discrimination because blacks are not prohibited from getting married. The problem is that marriage is defined as being between a man and a woman. Being black does not put you in a group, class, or category that is not a man or a woman so they are not being excluded from marriage and they are not being discriminated against. The current definition also is not discriminatory against blacks, you're right. However, that has nothing to do with it not being discriminatory against gays as well.
If it was "between the same gender" it would be discriminatory becasue some people don't belong to a particular sexual orientation and would be excluded by that definition. Your gender is not defined by your sexual orientation so you're just plain wrong here. A point you've failed to address. All you can do is try to smear my argument by comparison, a good indication that you have nothing to stand on. You're just trying to make it discriminatory because you want it to be so that it can be changed. I guess it is not really because you're dense, but more because you're biased.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
I know you are, but what am I? Well, now I'm beginning to think you're a moron. That, or your bias is severly clouding your judgement. You think you're actually saying something by replacing gender with race and you keep repeating it while it doesn't have anything to do with my argument. And this part:
Your gender is not defined by your sexual orientation so you're just plain wrong here. Your gender is not defined by your racial orientation so you're just plain wrong here.
That doesn't even make any sense. Of course your gender is not defined by your racial orientation, that's one of the reasons that having genders as a part of the definition of marriage does not discriminate against any race, just like it doesn't against any sexual orientations. Are you really that dense? Why can't you get it?
Your argument is faulty becasue it is exactly the same as a previous, faulty argument. If interracial marriage must be permitted under fair treatment, homosexual marriage must also be permitted. There is zero difference. None. The difference is that the law defines marriage as between a man and a women and this is not discriminatory against any group of people like it would be if it refered to race. Because your gender is not determined by your sexuality, having gender restiction does not discriminate against any particular sexuality.
In what way is homosexual marriage any different from interracial marriage? It doesn't matter how different they are. The definition of marriage is with respect to gender, not sexual orientation.
If all I have to do is change all of the sexual orientation words in your arguments to racial words, and turn homosexual marriage into interracial marriage, and the points are exactly the same, They are not exactly the same though.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
Heterosexuals can marry the person they love. Homosexuals cannot marry the person they love. What is that not discriminatory?
Strawman. My position is that the law, the topic of this thread, that defines marriage as between a man and a women is not discriminatory against gay people because they are still men and women. Your sexual orientation and your gender are seperate. Laws that limit things by gender do necessarily limit them by sexual orientation as well.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
I don't see how the first half of your message has anything to do with my position.
That's not backlash. That's redlining. What do you mean by "redlining"? Even the title of the act, the Defense of Marriage Act suggests that it was responsive.
All the more reason to make certain that all citizens have equal access to federal and state benefits. I don't have a problem with gay people having equal access to federal and state benefits. I do have a problem with changing the understood definition of marriage without considering the ramifications that it will have on thousands of laws.
Let's assume, for the sake of argument, that this is law: only a man and a woman can have sex with each other. Your argument would sound something like this: sex, as defined, is afforded to all our citizens and does not discriminate against any group; therefore, there’s no reason to change it. If the law defined sex as between a man and a woman, then whatever gay people are doing would not be considered sex by the legal definition. They wouldn't be being discriminated against, because they could still do whatever they were doing, the state just wouldn't recognize it as sex. Since they could still have sex, according to the legal definition, that definition would not discrimiate against gay people.
Eee hee hee! Oh, I hit the nail on the head. It's no wonder you're hesitant to venture a reply! lol, riiiight. You're not going to goad me.
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New Cat's Eye Inactive Member |
It's not a strawman, it's precisely the point! Heteros can marry the person they love, gays cannot. That's discriminatory, regardless of your hand waving. But the legal definition of marriages remains indiscriminatory.
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