[QUOTE]Originally posted by redstang281:
[b] The hebrew word actually means sphere. [/QUOTE]
no it doesn't...if it did,sphere is the word they would have used. That word existed in the time of King James. Besides,there are at least 7 place in the bible where the world is refered to as a flat,circular thing.
but you just made my point TC. If the person speaking of God was writing about him from his point of view and based of his knowledge of things,why then should we not assume that the entire Bible is nothing more than man's interpretations of the things he did not understand at that time? People refering to the water above the firmament (that infamous canopy)may have concluded that rain was actually water leaking from water located above the clouds. They may well have come to this conclusion due to lack of understanding of the concept of evaporation and condensation. There isen't a single part of the Bible than cannot be interpreted as ignorant attempts to explained unknown phenomenon based on cultural bias present at the time.
well,one exemple is that in the Bible,lust is identified as coming from the heart. Today,we know for a fact that no single emotion originates from the heart but from the brain. There is also a mention in the scripture about Jesus coming back to stand on the world's highest peek and behold the 4 corners of the world. First off,how many corners are there in a sphere and second,what montain could possible allow one standing on it to view AROUND the world.
But if you are willing to admit that some parts of the Bible are subject to interpretation,why are you not willing to admit that ALL of it is then subject to interpretation. How decides what part of the Bible is an interpretation and which part is to ba taken literaly?